Response to the following multiple choice questions:
Part. 1: Psychology: The Science of the Mind
1. In a neuron, the myelin sheath serves to insulate
A. the axon.
B. dendrites.
C. terminal buttons.
D. the cell body.
2. In his research, Dr. Caulfield wants to compare levels of test anxiety among high school students in grades 10 and 12. His hypothesis is that seniors will have higher levels of test anxiety than sophomores will. His _______ definition of test anxiety for each person in his sample will be a self-reported test-anxiety level, marked in a questionnaire as "high," "moderate," or "low."
A. theoretical
B. subjective
C. operational
D. functional
3. Among the advanced technologies used to study the brain's structure and functions, which one provides detailed three-dimensional images of the brain's structures and activities?
A. Positron emission tomography
B. Electroencephalogram
C. Functional magnetic resonance imaging
D. Transcranial magnetic stimulation
4. Agatha maintains that people are capable of freely making voluntary choices. Constance is mainly focused on how aggression is caused by genetic inheritance. It seems reasonable to assume that Constance is not much interested in environmental factors impacting behavior while Agatha rejects
A. mental processes.
B. determinism.
C. introspection.
D. heredity.
5. You'll need to select a sample that represents a larger group when you're conducting
A. survey research.
B. a case study.
C. archival research.
D. naturalistic observation.
6. Which of these statements most accurately characterizes linear perspective?
A. Through experience, we determine that changes in images focused on the retina occur as a result of the motion of our bodies.
B. Having learned that distant objects tend to be closer together, we interpret a two-dimensional image on the retina in three dimensions.
C. As we view a landscape, the relative sizes of objects are revealed by texture gradient cues.
D. We learn to compensate for the monocular disparity between the retinal images of the left and right eye.
7. You could locate receptor sites involved in transmitting a nerve impulse by finding the
A. myelin.
B. endorphins.
C. neural regulators.
D. synapse.
8. In the autonomic division of the nervous system, preparing the body for action under conditions of stress is to the sympathetic division as pupil dilation and inhibited digestive processes are to the _______ division.
A. peripheral-somatic
B. peripheral-autonomous
C. sympathetic
D. peripatetic
9. Within the cerebral cortex, the _______ area is found in the occipital lobe.
A. somatosensory
B. association
C. visual
D. main auditory
10. Under Weber's law, we'll notice a stimulus difference such that it will be a constant proportion of the intensity of the initial stimulus. Thus, for weight, we'll notice a one-ounce difference in a weight of 50 ounces. Weber's law applies most directly to the concept of
A. difference threshold.
B. perceived stimulus.
C. sensory adaptation.
D. absolute threshold.
11. Among his oil-field buddies, Conrad was known as a cheerfully profane hard drinker who was seldom averse to a barroom scrap. But, after he suffered a head injury in a car accident he returned to work as a docile, timid man who could no longer deal with the violent activity of a drill rig platform. His physicians determined that damage to his __________ was the likely cause of his changed behavior.
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. amygdala
D. hippocampus
12. Lorraine and Albert are discussing neurotransmitters, getting ready for an exam. Lorraine maintains that neuronal dendrites sort excitatory and inhibitory messages through a process of elimination dictated by reuptake activity. Albert, on the other hand, argues that inhibitory messages always cancel out excitatory messages. Who is correct?
A. Both Lorraine and Albert are correct.
B. Neither Lorraine nor Albert is correct.
C. Lorraine is correct.
D. Albert is correct.
13. By means of introspection, Dr. Marsh attempts to determine the components of things like perception, thinking, and consciousness. By contrast, Dr. Smyth wants to understand what the mind does in producing different kinds of behavior. We can reasonably assume that Dr. Marsh's research is mainly guided by the principles of
A. Gestalt psychology.
B. structuralism.
C. objectivism.
D. functionalism.
14. Regarding the trichromatic theory of color vision, which statement is most accurate?
A. Specialized cells in the retina are sensitive to blue-violet, green, and yellow.
B. The theory helps us understand why we see afterimages of different colors.
C. The theory maintains that receptor cells are grouped in pairs, such as black-white.
D. Specialized cells in the retina engage in a process called feature detection.
15. The left hemisphere of the cerebral cortex is more specialized in language functions and processing information sequentially. The right hemisphere tends to specialize in spatial perception and distinguishing patterns. These are examples of cortex
A. evolution.
B. adaptation.
C. lateralization.
D. neuroplasticity.
16. Dr. Lombard's research is focused on the capacity of the human mind to store and retrieve information. Her colleague, Dr. Fry, is a clinician who strives to help his clients be "the best that they can be." As a fly on the wall listening to the two psychologists' friendly disputes during coffee breaks, which of these assertions would you most likely expect from Dr. Fry?
A. People can't be held responsible for their life choices.
B. A person's basic assumptions about themselves are inevitably false.
C. If biology is destiny the concept of free will can be only an illusion.
D. Mental confusion is best compared to a deficiency in short-term memory.
17. Which of the following statements regarding processing is true?
A. Bottom-up processing allows us to fill in the gaps in an incomplete or ambiguous pattern.
B. Bottom-up processing is guided by experience, expectations, and motivations.
C. Top-down processing allows us to fill in the gaps in an incomplete or ambiguous pattern.
D. Top-down processing is a process of recognizing and processing components of a pattern.
18. Which of the following statements regarding taste and smell is true?
A. People often have a very short memory of smells.
B. Taste buds wear out and are replaced about every 25 days.
C. Women tend to have a better sense of smell than men.
D. So-called supertasters may be inclined to obesity.
19. Dr. Jones is interested in how human behavior may be genetically inherited from remote ancestors, such as chimpanzees. Her field of interest is
A. chemical psychobiology.
B. evolutionary psychology.
C. clinical neuropsychology.
D. behavioral genetics.
20. Rods are to light intensity as cones are to
A. the optic nerve.
B. the iris.
C. color perception.
D. the retina.
Part. 2: The Mind at Work
1. Knowing that Dr. Mallet, a clinical psychologist, is interested in the latent and manifest content of his client's dreams, it's safest to suspect that Dr. Mallet embraces _______ theory.
A. repressive-activation
B. dreams-for-survival
C. activation-synthesis
D. unconscious wish-fulfillment
2. There's evidence that sudden infant death syndrome is related to
A. sleep apnea.
B. narcolepsy.
C. insomnia.
D. night terrors.
3. I reward your behavior after I observe you correctly following a product assembly procedure six times. In operant conditioning, this kind of partial reinforcement is based on a _______ schedule.
A. variable-interval
B. fixed-ratio
C. variable-ratio
D. fixed-interval
4. After taking the drug, Rupert reported vivid hallucinations, altered perception of sounds and colors, and distorted time perception. It's most likely that the drug Rupert took was
A. LSD.
B. MDMA.
C. cocaine.
D. marijuana.
5. During the _______ phase of problem solving, a means-ends analysis is a very common heuristic.
A. algorithm
B. production
C. preparation
D. judgment
6. Which of the following best illustrates a negative reinforcer?
A. On a hot day, Lindberg always drinks lemonade.
B. Carmine changes his major to English lit after failing a math exam.
C. Copland gives up candy to stave off chronic acid indigestion.
D. Nancy learns that she prefers chocolate over vanilla.
7. Which of the following statements regarding REM sleep is true?
A. REM sleep occurs during stage 3 sleep.
B. REM sleep occurs only during state 4 sleep.
C. Dreaming causes major muscle contractions and tossing and turning.
D. Roughly 20 percent of adult sleep time is accompanied by REM.
8. In an instance of _______ recovery, a conditioned response that has been extinguished reappears when a person is exposed to a related stimulus.
A. generalized
B. incomplete
C. spontaneous
D. automatic
9. I want to condition a pet pig to come running for a food reward when I blow a whistle. In the process of this conditioning effort, the main idea is to
A. teach the pig to expect food when it's hungry.
B. pair a neutral stimulus with an unconditioned stimulus.
C. pair a conditioned stimulus with an unconditioned stimulus.
D. teach the pig to pay attention to the sound of a whistle.
10. A _______ reinforcement is one that satisfies a biological need.
A. positive
B. neutral
C. conditional
D. primary
11. According to information provided in your text, circadian rhythms are associated with
A. the occurrence of anxiety attacks.
B. cycles of waking and sleeping.
C. attacks of sleep apnea.
D. the time of month that pregnant women are likely to go into labor.
12. Which of the following statements regarding latent learning is most accurate?
A. Latent learning occurs in spite of negative reinforcement.
B. Latent learning occurs without reinforcement.
C. Latent learning doesn't require cognitive processes.
D. Latent learning suggests that environmental knowledge is genetically predetermined.
13. Responding to stimuli that are similar-but not identical-to a conditioned stimulus is called
A. stimulus generalization.
B. spontaneous recovery.
C. stimulus discrimination.
D. respondent reinforcement.
14. In a lab devoted to sleep disorders Julio points to the brain wave monitor, turns to Laura and says, "Subject is going into non-REM Stage 2." Laura looking at the monitor, says, "Got it; I'm recording the time." What would Laura and Julio see on the monitor to assure them that the subject has entered Stage 2 sleep?
A. Brain waves are irregular and episodic.
B. Sleep disturbance is indicated by sharp wave spikes.
C. Sleep spindles appear.
D. Brain waves are getting slower and more regular.
15. The most frequently abused nervous system depressant is
A. marijuana.
B. alcohol.
C. cocaine.
D. caffeine.
16. I'm having some trouble recalling what I've previously learned about the Battle of Gettysburg because I've just read a new book offering new information on that Civil War battle. This sort of phenomenon is referred to as _______ interference.
A. retroactive
B. proactive
C. passive
D. distractive
17. You deprive your six-year-old of dessert each time he fails to eat his spinach. In this sort of _______,you weaken a response through taking away something pleasant or desired.
A. negative punishment
B. negative reinforcement
C. positive reinforcement
D. positive punishment
18. As a volunteer subject in a sleep research lab, Conrad is routinely awakened each time he shows physiological signs of entering REM sleep. As a result, we would not be surprised to discover that, during Session 19, when Conrad is left undisturbed all night,
A. Conrad exhibits more time spent in REM sleep.
B. Conrad exhibits less time spent in REM sleep.
C. The content of Conrad's dreams tends to reflect concern with excretive functions.
D. The content of Conrad's dreams is significantly more focused on threat or violence.
19. After Kate's visit to Paris, her memories about what she saw and learned were influenced by music in the background, by the comments of her traveling companion, and by the light reflecting off the Seine, reminding Kate of her childhood home on the banks of the Wabash. Psychologists would say Kate's memories of Paris are influenced by the meanings she gave to aspects of her experience through
A. flashbulb memories.
B. implicit memories.
C. constructive processes.
D. episodic memory.
20. Trying to make sense of an article in the world events section of the Daily Mirror, Matlock turns to Thomas and asks, "Where's Khartoum?" Thomas, looking up from his coffee, says, "Africa. It's the capital of Sudan." If you hold with the idea that long-term memory includes distinct modules, what sort ofmemory does Thomas's reply indicate?
A. Declarative—episodic
B. Procedural—semantic
C. Procedural—episodic
D. Declarative—semantic
Part. 3: Motivation, Emotion, Development, and Personality
1. The original purpose in constructing the MMPI-2 was
A. screening college applicants.
B. identifying a client's optimal choices among occupations.
C. screening job applicants.
D. identifying psychological disorders.
2. In late adulthood, changes in memory may not be inevitable; however, any decline in memory tends to involve _______ memory.
A. episodic
B. implicit
C. semantic
D. intrinsic
3. In Maslow's needs hierarchy, people whose need for _______ has been fulfilled are poised to ascend to the level of self-actualization.
A. achievement
B. love and belongingness
C. safety
D. esteem
4. Which of the following statements regarding the outcomes of Mary Ainsworth's strange situation experiments is most accurate?
A. Only two-year-olds are capable of showing a secure attachment.
B. Ambivalent children may both hit and embrace their mother on her return.
C. Avoidant children cry when the mother returns to the playroom.
D. Disorganized-disoriented behavior precedes a secure attachment.
5. Sternberg's concept of practical intelligence is most directly related to
A. overall success in living.
B. emotional intelligence.
C. multiple intelligences.
D. information processing.
6. I show you a picture of an adult figure hovering over a sleeping child. I ask you to tell me a story about what you think is happening. Which kind of projective test am I using?
A. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory-2
B. Rorschach test
C. Thematic Apperception Test
D. Behavioral assessment test
7. Carol is most likely to reject the _________ theory of aging because she pictures the body as a machine that stops working properly as the parts wear out.
A. genetic preprogramming
B. wear-and-tear
C. disengagement
D. activity
8. In the research conducted by Hans Eysenck, factor analysis was used to identify ________ basic personality dimensions. Of these, the tendency to distort reality was labeled:
A. three; extraversion
B. three; psychoticism
C. five; neuroticism.
D. five; conscientiousness
9. If you agree with B.F. Skinner as to the nature of personality, you would also agree that
A. humans are infinitely changeable because they can learn new behavior patterns.
B. human personality is largely shaped through observational learning.
C. traits like sociability arise from unconscious wishes to be liked by others.
D. personality is shaped by people's thoughts, feelings, expectations, and values.
10. According to Bandura, the extent to which we feel we're able to meet a challenge or pursue a task to a favorable outcome is our level of
A. extraversion.
B. openness to experience.
C. self-efficacy.
D. self-esteem.
11. If you support the idea that physiological arousal and the experience of an associated emotion will occur simultaneously, you'll agree with the
A. biological emotion-activation theory.
B. Cannon-Bard theory of emotion.
C. Schachter-Singer theory of emotion.
D. James-Lange theory of emotion.
12. Which of the following statements regarding human sexuality is most accurate?
A. Masturbation is an infrequent but not uncommon cause of sexual dysfunctions.
B. In females, estrogen production is a direct result of ovulation.
C. Regarding premarital sex, the double standard applies to both men and women.
D. Only a minority of people engage in sex fantasies during actual intercourse.
13. According to Erik Erikson, generativity-versus-stagnation is the typical challenge of
A. middle adulthood.
B. early adulthood.
C. adolescence.
D. old age.
14. According to Rogers, we can overcome the discrepancy between our self-concept and our experience through
A. unconditional positive regard.
B. unconditional cognitive regard.
C. balancing conditional positive and conditional negative self-regard.
D. conditional positive regard.
15. As discussed in your textbook, which statement best illustrates fluid intelligence?
A. Caldwell critically evaluates the likely causes of kidney stones.
B. Dylan scribbles the draft of a poem onto the back of an envelope.
C. Alex recalls the wiring pattern and deftly reconnects the power lead to the battery.
D. Gavin the spy quickly memorizes the 12-digit code.
16. I'm not all that happy, but when I smile I feel better. This idea might best be expressed by the
A. emotional similarity theory.
B. facial feedback hypothesis.
C. facial-affect program.
D. theory of universal affect programming.
17. In the Binet IQ test, an IQ score is equal to MA divided by CA times 100. In this formula, "MA" is to mental age as "CA" is to
A. common age.
B. cognitive age.
C. chronological age.
D. calculated ability.
18. Which of the following statements regarding adolescent suicide is not true?
A. Suicide is normally associated with depression.
B. Male suicide rates are five times higher than those for females.
C. Suicide is the leading cause of death among adolescents.
D. Females attempt suicide more often than males.
19. It's becoming increasingly apparent to researchers that infants are born with
A. developed personalities.
B. innate temperaments.
C. low self-esteem.
D. high self-esteem.
20. According to your textbook's treatment of Kohlberg's theory of moral development, a focus on rewards and punishment in respect to a moral dilemma is characteristic of
A. adolescents who have reached the conventional level of moral development.
B. adolescents who have reached the formal operational stage of moral development.
C. children who haven't reached the conventional stage of moral development.
D. children who haven't grasped the principle of object constancy
Part. 4: Psychology for Two or More
1. Which of the following statements best illustrates the concept of the halo effect?
A. After Clark missed the foul shot, Coach Smart told him to try practicing for a change.
B. On first meeting Sally, Harry recognized that he and Sally were like two peas in a pod.
C. Grenville maintains that Hannibal's faults lie not with the stars but within his character.
D. Observing that Lois is argumentative and abrasive, Leopold assumes she is a skilled liar.
2. Particular factors encourage people to be drawn into liking one another. In this context, the reciprocity of liking effect is primarily associated with
A. exposure.
B. propinquity.
C. physical attractiveness.
D. similarity.
3. Which of the following statements regarding stereotypes and prejudice is true?
A. A self-fulfilling prophecy always precedes prejudice.
B. Discrimination is to action as prejudice is to attitudes.
C. Stereotypes may be positive or negative.
D. Where there are stereotypes we always find prejudice.
4. With respect to the theory of cognitive dissonance, people can hold contradictory ideas in their minds. If you become aware of the dissonance between two ideas, you could pursue which of the following strategies to reduce the dissonance?
A. You can modify your views of the two contradictory ideas.
B. You can change the way you perceive the ideas by decreasing the importance of one of them.
C. You can repress one of the cognitions into your unconscious mind and go about your day.
D. You can tell yourself that the contradictory ideas are contradictory.
5. The last stage in the GAS model of stress is
A. flight or fight.
B. resistance.
C. adaptation.
D. exhaustion.
6. In respect to the foundations of prejudice, social identity theory is associated with the concept of
A. ethnocentrism.
B. self-fulfilling prophecy.
C. stereotypical discrimination.
D. modern racism.
7. In the context of stress, the flip side of an uplift is
A. any cataclysmic event.
B. a hassle.
C. a personal stressor.
D. background chaos.
8. Two psychology students are in a heated discussion about the nature of prejudice. Mavis insists that that when people get their identity from membership in a political action group, they will generally express ethnocentrism. Martin argues that with or without ethnocentrism, social identity based in group membership is inevitably associated with the demonization of minority groups. Who is correct?
A. Both Mavis and Martin are correct.
B. Neither Mavis nor Martin is correct.
C. Mavis is correct.
D. Martin is correct.
9. A popular talk show host, jovial and sharp-witted as usual, outlines his views on the death penalty, taking time to consider both sides of the issue. As a long-time listener to that talk show, if you're swayed to adopt the talk-show host's point of view, it will probably be due to
A. the medium of the message (radio).
B. your tendency to employ peripheral route processing.
C. your temperament and character.
D. the character of the message.
10. According to Sternberg, intimacy plus decision/commitment identifies
A. liking.
B. fatuous love.
C. companionate love.
D. true friendship.
11. In the context of social cognition, what is the primary importance of schemas?
A. They help us organize, store, and recall information about other people.
B. They allow us to correctly identify the central traits of other people.
C. They provide accurate and truthful information about social situations and other people.
D. They help us differentiate good people from bad people.
12. Jason and Julia are preparing for a quiz in Psychology 101. Jason recites four reasons for seeking out a social support network. Julia, who has top grades in the class, gives her nod of approval to all but one of Jason's list. Which one is she most likely to reject?
A. Support group membership can help a participant feel valued by others.
B. Being in a social support network helps a person learn how to win arguments.
C. Being a member of a social support network can help reduce a person's stress levels.
D. Group members can help a participant with practical things like finding a new job.
13. Aggressiveness builds up in people because of human nature. It can be safely expressed before it reaches a "boiling point" through the catharsis offered by aggressive sports and games. These kinds of ideas are associated with
A. observational learning theories.
B. instinct approaches to aggression.
C. social learning theories.
D. frustration-aggression theory.
14. As discussed in your textbook, the Implicit Association Test (IAT)
A. has revealed that most people aren't prejudiced.
B. requires people to openly express and reveal their latent prejudices.
C. is based on a culture-free questionnaire.
D. requires subjects to react to a series of black and white faces.
15. Which statement best expresses the concept of the self-serving bias?
A. We assume that situational causes are brought about by the environment.
B. We attribute our successes to our skills and abilities and our failures to external factors.
C. We nearly always assume that other people's failures are due to their personal characteristics.
D. We tend to think other people are similar to us, even when we first meet them.
16. The foot-in-the-door technique and the that's-not-all technique are persuasive tactics for gaining
A. compliance.
B. obedience.
C. reciprocity.
D. conformity.
17. Four steps are involved in a person's decision to offer assistance in an emergency situation. The third step is
A. assuming responsibility for rendering assistance.
B. deciding how to help.
C. interpreting the event as requiring someone to offer assistance.
D. appraisal of one's skills and experience in dealing with emergencies.
18. The concept of aggression cues is associated with
A. observational learning theories.
B. social learning theories.
C. the work of animal behaviorist Konrad Lorenz.
D. frustration-aggression theory.
19. Mandy has decided that she has no control over the aversive stimuli she encounters at work and at home day by day. Thus, she has given up trying to make her life better. Psychologists would say Mandy's
worldview illustrates
A. emotion-focused coping.
B. problem-focused coping.
C. learned avoidant coping.
D. learned helplessness.
20. The more people there are at the scene of an accident, the less likely it is that individuals will step up to lend a hand. This phenomenon is referred to as
A. diffusion of interest.
B. antisocial behavior.
C. crowd apathy.
D. diffusion of responsibility.
Part. 5: Psychological Disorders
1. Which symptoms would psychiatrists or psychologists associate with Type II, negative-symptom schizophrenia?
A. Hallucinations
B. Presence of emotional extremes
C. Social withdrawal
D. Paranoid delusions
2. A reference work developed by the American Psychiatric Association is referred to as DSM-IV-TR. In that acronym, S stands for
A. Symposium
B. Standardized
C. Statistical
D. Standard
3. Lois and Lang are in a heated discussion over the effectiveness of psychotherapy. Lois maintains that psychotherapy works for most people. Lang argues that it doesn't work for everyone. Who is correct?
A. Lang is correct.
B. Neither Lois nor Lang is correct.
C. Both Lois and Lang are correct.
D. Lois is correct.
4. According to psychologist Martin Seligman, depression is largely a response to
A. learned helplessness.
B. manic elation.
C. sexual abuse during childhood.
D. chronic negative circumstances.
5. The most common symptom of a generalized anxiety disorder is
A. confusion.
B. trembling hands.
C. inability to relax.
D. a racing heart.
6. The key theme in humanistic therapy is
A. philosophical reasoning.
B. self-responsibility.
C. emotional expression.
D. self-criticism.
7. A very large sample, representing the population of the United States, was drawn to study the prevalence of psychological disorders. The second most commonly reported disorder, after depression, was
A. alcohol dependency.
B. comorbidity.
C. panic disorders.
D. posttraumatic stress disorder.
8. Xenophobia is to fear of strangers as claustrophobia is to fear of
A. heights.
B. social situations.
C. closure.
D. enclosed spaces.
9. Psychologists consider _______ behavior to be behavior that causes people to experience distress and prevents them from functioning in their daily lives.
A. adolescent
B. abnormal
C. deviant
D. aberrant
10. _______ drugs focus on efforts to change the concentration of neurotransmitters in the brain. For example, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors concentrate serotonin in synapses between neurons.
A. Antidepressant
B. Mood stabilizer
C. Antipsychotic
D. Anti-anxiety
11. The _______ perspective on psychological disorders has been criticized for relying on unscientific and nonverifiable information.
A. humanistic
B. cognitive
C. sociocultural
D. behavioral
12. Which therapeutic approach does not require the presence of a psychological professional?
A. Family therapy
B. Self-help therapy
C. Interpersonal therapy
D. Humanistic therapy
13. In the context of trends in community psychology, which statement is true?
A. Telephone hotlines are a negative development in community psychology.
B. Deinstitutionalization has been greatly decreased in recent years.
C. Psychoactive drugs have greatly increased the need to physically restrain mental patients.
D. A high proportion of homeless adults suffer from a psychological disorder.
14. Which of the following statements regarding electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is true?
A. It isn't known why ECT works when it does work.
B. Disorientation and confusion always accompany ECT therapy.
C. Side-effects may include memory loss that lasts for years.
D. Depression doesn't return after ECT treatments have been concluded.
15. When Dr. Payne prescribes lithium for a bipolar disorder, she understands that
A. the specific neurological effects of Lithium have long been recognized.
B. antidepressants are counter-indicated when a patient is being treated with lithium.
C. lithium can prevent reoccurrence of manic episodes.
D. lithium is mainly successful in treating the depressive aspect of the disorder.
16. Among somatoform disorders, hypochondriasis is to obsessive concern about one's health as a/an _______ disorder is to marked physical symptoms with no identifiable physiological cause.
A. conversion
B. hysterical
C. dissociative
D. obsessive
17. In the context of a therapeutic program, you regularly take a drug that causes you to get violently ill whenever you drink alcohol. Among behavioral approaches to therapy, this would best be called
A. systematic desensitization.
B. contingent conditioning.
C. aversive conditioning.
D. negative reinforcement.
18. Regarding perspectives on abnormality, what is the common ground between the medical and psychoanalytic perspectives?
A. Both view abnormal behavior as rooted in biological processes.
B. Both view abnormal behaviors as symptoms of underlying problems.
C. Both view abnormal behaviors as learned behaviors.
D. Both assume that people's thoughts and beliefs underlie problematic behavior.
19. Dr. Cranberry suspects that her client is selectively failing to recall an event that must, by all evidence, be stored in his memory. If the therapist turns out to be correct in this assessment, she'll identify the disorder as dissociative
A. repression.
B. fugue.
C. identity disorder.
D. amnesia.
20. In the context of rational-emotional behavior therapy, which of the following is considered an unrealistic and irrational idea?
A. No one in my life should love me and approve of what I do.
B. How I view a situation effects how I feel about myself in that situation.
C. It's not a big deal when things don't go the way I want them to.
D. We must be accomplished and successful in every aspect of our lives to feel like a worthwhile person.