Are the two statements compatible or incompatible what


3-4 Pages Philosophy Paper with work cited including one (1) in work citation. Please see essay prompt below:

Essay Prompt

Friedrich Nietzsche famously said, "God is dead, and we have killed him." Richard Tarnas, in the textbook, The Passion of the Western Mind, states the following:

[a] "For Nietzsche, the death of God signified not just the recognition of a religious illusion, but the demise of and entire civilization's world view ... (317)," and

[b] "Following suggestions implicit in Nietzsche, the ‘death of God' has begun to be assimilated and reconceived as a positive religious development, as permitting the emergence of a more authentic experience of the numinous, a larger sense of deity" (404).

Are the two statements compatible or incompatible?

What does Nietzsche mean to imply by the "death of God"?

Why is Nietzsche's idea of the "death of God" considered a great idea and what is the import of God's death on the religious worldview and subsequent philosophical and cultural paradigm shifts?

Has the "death of God" significantly changed man's perception of his place in the universe? If God is indeed dead, what could Tarnas mean by the idea Nietzsche's claim "has begun to be assimilated and reconceived as a positive religious development"?

Minimum three (3) pages, maximum of four (4) with one (1) required citation or footnote written in correct MLA 8 style.

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