Problem
Suppose that the cost of training is 20 chocolate bars. Assume highability people produce 100 bars if they get training and 50 bars if they don't. Low-ability people produce 50 bars regardless of training. If under the social contract you decide to provide an incentive for high-ability people to train, what is the distribution of consumption in the economy? Is society better off with inequality in consumption or is it better to have equal consumption and no training by high-ability people?
The response should include a reference list. Double-space, using Times New Roman 12 pnt font, one-inch margins, and APA style of writing and citations.