Was the renaissance church as corrupt and worldly as luther


Was the Renaissance church as corrupt and worldly as Luther and the Protestant reformers claimed, or was there simply a different form of religiosity in Germany that made this seem so? In other words, did the Reformation result from a cultural difference in perspective, the troubled soul of a young priest, or a real need for reform? In addition to your text, please reference Luther's Ninety-Five Theses in your response and discussion. Your post should be about 250 words.

Although there had been heretics and reformers in the Catholic Church before Martin Luther, none had threatened the unity of the church. Why do you think Luther succeeded where many others before him had failed? What social, economic, and political conditions in Germany might have contributed to the enormous success of Lutheranism? Include at least one additional resource other than the textbook in your post. Your post should be about 250 words.

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History: Was the renaissance church as corrupt and worldly as luther
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