The most logical interpretation of apparent polar wandering is:
a) both magnetic poles have moved to their present position via sea-floor spreading.
b) the north pole (or south pole during periods of magnetic reversal) has remained fixed and the continents have moved in relation to the pole.
c) in the past 200 million years there have been several periods when there were two north magnetic poles.
d) as earth spin on its axis a long term wobbling motion alters the apparent position of the geographic poles in relation to the magnetic poles.
can anyone give me a reason why they chose their answer?