Problem: Edith owns a restaurant in a relatively unpopular area of city. She has operated the restaurant for almost seven years period city recently amended a general plan to provide that the area of city in which Edith's restaurant is located shall be "used for residential purposes only." in fact, the City Council recently enacted an ordinance that the zones Edith's property for single family residential use only. Is this a taking? If So, what are easy options? Explain and discuss.