Problem: 32-year-old gravida 1 para 0 woman at 37 weeks presents to the emergency room with severe headache and right upper quadrant pain. She has no past medical history and her only medication is a daily prenatal vitamin. The pregnancy has been uncomplicated to this point. Temperature is 99.1°F, pulse is 105/min, blood pressure is 165/112 mmg, respiratory rate is 16/min, and oxygen saturation is 96% on room air. Due to concern for preeclampsia, she is administered intravenous labetalol and magnesium and admitted to the obstetrics service. Twenty-four hours after admission, the patient's blood pressure is 120/80 mmg and pulse is 60/min. Her headache and abdominal pain have resolved. Examination is notable for absent deep-tendon reflexes. Without further treatment, this patient is at greatest risk for which of the following complications? Need Assignment Help? (A) Acute liver failure B) Cerebrovascular accident (C) Hypercapnic respiratory failure (D) Myocardial infarction (E) Postpartum cardiomyopathy