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Moving beyond the ricardian model why is complete

Moving beyond the Ricardian model, why is complete specialization not analytically possible in a model that assumes multiple (or non-homogeneous) resources?

Why are there gains from trade by still specializing in the direction of comparative advantage, even if not complete, in a model that assumes multiple (or non-homogeneous) resources?

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Business Economics: Moving beyond the ricardian model why is complete

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