It is simply intellectual laziness to treat them as


Some argue that postwar Japan and Korea followed the same basic developmental model.

But these similarities were only on the surface. Rather, their domestic political and economic situations were very different, and their external circumstances were dissimilar as well.

More importantly, the strategies and policies they followed were not at all similar.

It is simply intellectual laziness to treat them as following the same model of development. How can I argue for and against this statement?

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