If the firm is not in an mampm perfect-markets situation


1. If the firm is not in an M&M perfect-markets situation, how will this be reflected in the relation between its cost of capital and its leverage?

2. Does the lack of a personal income tax rate in the APV and WACC formula mean that the personal tax rate does not matter to the valuation of the firm?

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Financial Econometrics: If the firm is not in an mampm perfect-markets situation
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