Problem
If a partial agonist was prescribed, such as Suboxone, rather than a full agonist, such as Methadone, how do one feel their counseling would change for the patient? Are there examples one can provide on why a partial agonist may be chosen over a full agonist, or visa versa?
Reference
Camprodon, J. A., & Roffman, J. L. (2016). Psychiatric neuroscience: Incorporating pathophysiology into clinical case formulation. In T. A. Stern, M. Favo, T. E. Wilens, & J. F. Rosenbaum. (Eds.), Massachusetts General Hospital psychopharmacology and neurotherapeutics (pp. 1-19). Elsevier.