Does asset has negative risk
Problem:
Suppose Rf is 5% and Rm is 10%. According to the SML and the CAPM, an asset with a beta of -2.0 has a required return of negative 5% [=5-2(10-5)]. Can this be possible and does this means the asset has negative risk?
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Question: Why do investors demand higher expected rates of return on stocks with more variable rates of return?
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Can this be possible and does this means the asset has negative risk?
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