Problem 1: Many States, such as Germany, list and define human rights in their constitution while other countries, such as the UK, make no such provision either in their constitution or other legislation.
Problem 2: What, if any, difference would the listing and definition of human rights or the lack thereof have on the ability of a human being to claim such a right according to the philosophy of St. Thomas Aquinas, Hobbes, Locke and Rousseau?
Problem 3: Please discuss including detailed debate with some case references and examples. Make sure it's a strong discussion and debate, with references.