Will brian be limited to provided for in the agreement


Problem

Ben, a wealthy producer, and Brian, an unemployed actor, enter into a written agreement that provides for Brian to receive only $100,000 payment and no other support or distribution of property acquired during the marriage. Is this a valid contract? If Ben and Brian live in California, a community property state, and Ben ears $50,000 income and investments during the couple's marriage, while Brian earns no income as a stay-at-home husband, will Brian be limited to the $100,000 provided for in the agreement?

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Business Law and Ethics: Will brian be limited to provided for in the agreement
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