Why does kant think that morality requires categorical
Question: Why does Kant think that morality requires categorical and not merely hypothetical imperatives?
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Kant determines the moral worth of an action according to the intention (duty) of the person doing the action and Mill defines a good action
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Question: What does it means for an imperative to command hypothetically?
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For example, could too much meat be bad for one person whereas another person be perfectly fine? Is this a problem for Aristotle's virtue theory?
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