Discussion Post
Although slavery existed in virtually all parts of the Old World, slavery in pre-1500 Africa, Asia, and Europe was not race-based. A such, racism--discrimination by a dominant group of another group based on skin color--is a relatively recent construction in world history.
That said, how and why did labor in 17th-century America transition from mostly white indentured servitude to race-based slavery?
Furthermore, why did slavery take hold in the Southern colonies far more than in the Northern colonies?
The response should include a reference list. Using one-inch margins, Times New Roman 12 pnt font, double-space and APA style of writing and citations.