Why did freudian psychoanalysis have such a seemingly


Discussion:

Psychoanalysis and Psychodynamic Views

Questions:

1) From a scientific perspective, psychoanalysis or psychodynamic views have very little validity. Do you agree or disagree with this statement? Justify your answer.

2) Why did Freudian psychoanalysis have such a seemingly dominant influence, not on U.S. psychology development, but on popular culture?

3) The humanistic form of psychology was a significant departure from the psychological viewpoints existing in the early- to mid-twentieth century in the U.S. Describe the main proponents of humanistic psychology. Then, compare and contrast their views with those of their contemporaries. In terms of application or from a clinical perspective, what would make humanistic psychology appealing?

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