Why are courts reluctant to prescribe specific performance
Problem: Why are the Courts reluctant to prescribe "specific performance" as damages for a contract breach?
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Why affiliated companies cannot recognize gains or losses on transactions between them and the effect of these transaction on consolidated financial statements.
Is there any reason why you should assess opportunities beyond the borders of the United States? Please explore your reasoning.
Is there a risk that Lawler will be liable on contracts and torts made by Claydon?"
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Accordingly, the US system sets a very high standard for meeting the legal elements of the tort of defamation.
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