Multiple Choice Questions
Part A -
1. According to the text, police agencies have only been in existence for less than ______ years.
a. 300
b. 250
c. 200
d. 150
2. The Police Gazette did which of the following?
a. encouraged victims to report crimes
b. published information about criminal activities
c. listed stolen property
d. All of the above.
3. August Vollmer and other reformers advocated which of the following agenda during the early 1900s?
a. Policing should be a profession that serves the community on a partisan basis.
b. Politics should be eliminated from policing.
c. Police operations should not be centralized.
d. Police agencies should not be divided into specialized units.
4. ______was the earliest advocate of criminal investigation as a science.
a. Hans Gross
b. Leone Lattes
c. Francis Galton
d. Edmond Locard
5. Which of the following is NOT one of the four different blood categories?
a. A
b. B
c. 0
d. AO
6. President Nixon created the ______ which merged several agencies into a single unit to combat the global war on drugs.
a. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)
b. Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF)
c. Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)
d. Secret Service
7. Search warrants must be executed within a prescribed period of time, usually within ______days.
a. 30
b. 20
c. 10
d. 5
8. The Fifth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution ______.
a. protects a person from self incrimination
b. declares a person's right to a trial by jury
c. expresses the freedom of speech, press, religion and petition
d. states a person's right to bear arms
9. In an emergency situation, an investigator can obtain a search warrant by ______.
a. fax
b. phone
c. text messaging
d. e-mail
10. The "body of the crime" plus the identity of the person charged with it is formally known as ______.
a. habeas corpus
b. ex post facto
c. factum
d. corpus delicti
11. Which of the following is one of the standard negative-evidence defenses specified in the textbook?
a. The defendant did not commit the crime. It is a case of mistaken identity.
b. The defendant did not commit the crime. The police work is faulty.
c. The defendant did commit the crime, but it was an accident.
d. All of the above.
12. The method the courts use to uphold the constitutional protections against unreasonable searches and seizures, as well as to control the investigator's actions and prevent illegally obtained evidence from being used at trial is known as the ______ rule.
a. conclusively
b. exclusionary
c. inclusionary
d. emergency
13. This type of search follows a chain of objects that are obviously evidence.
a. grid search
b. ever-narrowing search
c. point-to-point movement
d. zone search
14. The advantage of a crime scene sketch that cannot be accomplished with any type of photography is the ______.
a. unique ability of the artist comes through
b. ability to improve lighting conditions
c. elimination of unnecessary detail
d. addition of missing or necessary detail
15. The first officers responding to a crime scene are responsible for making sure that the scene is safe for other personnel to enter the area. This step in the coordination of a crime scene is known as ______.
a. neutralizing the scene
b. crime scene security
c. initializing the scene
d. crime scene basics
16. Exchange of trace evidence between the suspect and the crime scene may include ______.
a. skin cells
b. hairs
c. dust
d. All of the above.
17. Bacterial contamination becomes a strong possibility when transporting ______ in plastic envelopes and bags.
a. clothing containing bloodstains
b. hairs
c. bullets
d. pills
18. ______is a potentially lethal infectious disease more likely to be encountered at crime scenes.
a. Staphylococcus
b. Tuberculosis
c. Hepatitis B
d. b and c only.
19. Glass, paint, shoe prints, fibers and tool marks are what sort of evidence?
a. individual evidence
b. class evidence
c. direct evidence
d. a and c only.
20. Bluestar and luminol are extremely sensitive and are capable of detecting bloodstains diluted up to ______times.
a. 100
b. 1,000
c. 100,000
d. 1,000,000
21. ______prints usually cannot be seen with the naked eye and need to be developed to be seen.
a. Latent
b. Fresh
c. Contaminated
d. Plastic
22. ______ fractures start at the center or the point of impact and run outward in a star-shaped pattern.
a. Radial
b. Concentric
c. Spiral
d. None of the above.
23. Prints left on slippery surfaces such as plastic bags can be developed using the ______ process.
a. iodine fuming
b. luminol
c. gel diffusion
d. cyanoacrylate fuming
24. Which of the following is a manufactured fiber?
a. wool
b. nylon
c. cotton
d. silk
25. The Automated Fingerprint Identification System has reduced the FBI's criminal ten-print processing time from forty-five days with the inked card system to less than ______.
a. one week
b. two days
c. six hours
d. two hours
Part B -
1. Identification in criminalistics is aligned with the logic of ______.
a. set theory
b. legal science
c. criminology
d. evolutionary theory
2. The informational output of a crime laboratory depends upon what?
a. expertise of the laboratory staff
b. physical evidence collected at the crime scene
c. location of the laboratory in relation to major universities
d. number and kinds of tests conducted
3. Degraded, contaminated, and small quantities of DNA can be successfully analyzed in the crime laboratory due to which laboratory process?
a. loci development
b. alleles reagent
c. genome splicing
d. polymerase chain reaction
4. In making the determination that bullets, shells, or cartridge cases were fired from a specific weapon, the criminalist would use which piece of laboratory equipment?
a. comparison microscope
b. spectrographic analysis
c. X-ray crystallography
d. neutron activation analysis
5. To make the determination of whether or not a person has recently fired a handgun, the criminalist would subject hand swabs from the subject to which laboratory examination?
a. comparison microscope
b. spectrographic analysis
c. X-ray crystallography
d. neutron activation analysis
6. The laboratory process which a criminalist might use to restore obliterated serial numbers on firearms and other metal objects is called what?
a. lasers
b. ultrasonic cavitation
c. trace metal detection
d. X-ray crystallography
7. A technique of personal identification that in the future may challenge fingerprints as the most positive means of physical identification is ______.
a. voiceprint identification
b. DNA analysis
c. spectrography
d. chromatography
8. In the case of charred remains, forensic scientists will probably use ______ DNA to identify a subject.
a. nuclear
b. ribonucleic
c. mitochondria!
d. None of the above.
9. In cases in which the identity of the perpetrator is known, the objective of the investigation is to ______.
a. develop suspects
b. corroborate the statements of victim and/or witnesses
c. probe the background of the victim(s)
d. seek and identify crime partner(s)
10. The concept of "benefit" as a basic lead is aligned with ______.
a. opportunity to commit a crime
b. motive for a crime
c. active evidence
d. trace evidence
11. A "bumper beeper" is related to ______.
a. surveillance
b. a hit-and-run accident
c. a "pen register"
d. a lie detector (polygraph)
12. Covert informants are also known as ______ in the area of international espionage as they are often in place for years before being activated.
a. rats
b. spies
c. moles
d. All of the above.
13. The distinctive methods used to commit a crime is a ______.
a. alibi
b. signature
c. bug
d. marker
14. The ______ alert system disseminates information to the general public about kidnappers and sexual predators and their vehicles via highway signs, television and radio broadcasts.
a. Google
b. Sig
c. Amber
d. Miranda
15. Open-ended questions such as, "what happened," are usually asked during the ______ step of the witness interviewing process at a crime scene.
a. first
b. second
c. third
d. fourth
16. According to the text, when people are nervous or troubled ______.
a. they will lean toward the interviewer
b. their heart rate slows down
c. they sit very still
d. their blink rate increases
17. Approximately 90% of the population will move their eyes ______ when they are recalling something that they actually experienced.
a. to their right
b. up
c. to their left
d. down
18. In the case of ______ the defendant was held in solitary confinement for ten days until he confessed. The Court found this method to be coercive and the confession to be involuntary.
a. Escobedo v. Illinois
b. Fikes v. Alabama
c. Brown v. Mississippi
d. Haley v. Ohio
19. Which of the following is NOT a part of the Miranda rights?
a. You have the right to remain silent.
b. You have the right to one phone call.
c. Anything you say can be used against you in a court of law.
d. If you cannot afford an attorney, one will be appointed free of charge to represent you before and during questioning, if you desire
20. ______involves the killing of another but without the element of premeditation.
a. First-degree murder
b. Second degree murder
c. Manslaughter
d. Aggravated assault
21. Scratches and trivial wounds are generally classified as ______.
a. abrasions
b. contusions
c. antemortem
d. incised wounds
22. ______ specialize in the detection of chemical, physical and biological toxins.
a. Pathologists
b. Criminologists
c. Toxicologists
d. Odontologists
23. ______ is when the blood stops circulating and begins to settle to the lowest portion of the body.
a. Ante mortem
b. Algor mortis
c. Rigor mortis
d. Postmortem lividity
24. ______ occurs by a chemical breakdown of the body that results in the softening and liquefaction of body tissue.
a. Decomposition
b. Autolysis
c. Exhumation
d. Putrefaction
25. When a bruise looks yellow, its age is approximately ______.
a. 5-7 days
b. 7-10 days
c. 10-14 days
d. 2-4 weeks
Part C -
1. What is the most significant characteristic of "date" rape as opposed to the "blitz" rape?
a. custodial relationship
b. prior relationship
c. incapacity of the victim
d. victim does not consent to sex
2. Of the various types of rapist profiles that have been identified, which is the most prominent?
a. anger rapist
b. power rapist
c. sadistic rapist
d. None of these.
3. The most common defenses to the charge of rape are what?
a. mistaken identity and an alibi for the time of the rape
b. lack of ability and mistaken identity
c. consent
d. consent and lack of ability
4. Which is the first step in the investigation of child abduction?
a. Make an inquiry to the NCIC's missing person file.
b. Probe registered sex offender records.
c. Determine if the child is a pawn in a family dispute.
d. Check Internet chat rooms for discussion of the missing child.
5. ______ is the erotic gratification gained from the telephone conversation between the caller and the victim rather than from any form of sexual contact.
a. Pedophilia
b. Scatophilia
c. Exhibitionism
d. Frottage
6. Any young person under the legal adult age (unemancipated) who, without permission of parent or guardian, remains away from his or her home for twenty-four hours or more is considered a(n) ______ by local police.
a. delinquent
b. abductee
c. runaway
d. missing persons
7. What type of crime is robbery?
a. felony level
b. property related
c. white collar
d. blue collar
8. ______criminals are offenders who have had previous arrests and these career criminals comprise a high percentage of armed robbers.
a. Career
b. Cruising
c. Backup
d. Silent
9. ______is the theft of a motor vehicle by force or threat, or force from the person or the immediate presence of the victim.
a. Hijacking
b. Lowjacking
c. Carjacking
d. Motorjacking
10. ______degree robbery is accomplished by physical force or its threat but without a weapon, including purse snatching.
a. First
b. Second
c. Third
d. Fourth
11. ______robbers are characterized as a tall man and a short man working together.
a. "Mutt and Jeff"
b. "John and Bob"
c. "Siegfried and Roy"
d. "Holmes and Watson"
12. What is an irrationally motivated arsonist called?
a. an incendiary
b. the criminal agency
c. a pyromaniac
d. a civilian
13. Which one of these, soaked in accelerant, may function as a trailer?
a. a rope
b. newspaper
c. both a and b
d. none of the above.
14. This is the examination and search by firefighters for hidden flames or sparks that might rekindle the fire.
a. tagging
b. overhauling
c. spark-hunting
d. rooting
15. Mechanical fire-setting devices are used by an arsonist for which of the following reasons?
a. They accelerate the rate of burn.
b. They are capable of starting numerous fires simultaneously.
c. They provide a delay in ignition and an opportunity to establish an alibi.
d. They retard the fire-fighting response.
16. These "firebugs" may claim rational motivation, but they set fires for no practical reason and receive no material profit from their incendiarism.
a. pyromaniacs
b. pyrotechnics
c. pryophiliacs
d. arsonists
17. A rapid development of the fire that occurs when the volume of active fire becomes a significant portion of the room volume is known as room ______.
a. takeover
b. swallowed up
c. flashover
d. None of the above.
18. Pathological fire setters are motivated by ______ reasons to set their fires.
a. prejudiced
b. irrational
c. hateful
d. rational
19. The best-case scenario in arson investigation is when the investigator arrives ______.
a. after the fire is put out and the area has been cleared of all bystanders
b. the following day
c. after the fire is put out but before firefighters get the chance to leave
d. while the fire is still in progress
20. The ______ burglar includes the burglar who commits crimes primarily to secure money for drugs.
a. amateur
b. professional
c. blue collar
d. white collar
21. The burglar forces a door or window with a tool such as a tire iron, screwdriver, or small crowbar or box opener. This is known as ______ entry.
a. open door
b. celluloid
c. jimmy
d. hide-in
22. This involves prying off the outer surface of the safe door so that the locking mechanism of the safe is exposed and can be pried open, allowing entry to the safe.
a. peeling
b. pulling
c. ripping
d. burning
23. This type of auto thief steals late-model automobiles and resells them. The stolen car is sometimes transported to another state and registered in that state with forged or fraudulent papers prior to resale.
a. transportation thief
b. professional thief
c. strippers
d. insurance-fraud swindlers
24. The loss of inventory from employee theft is known as ______.
a. inventory loss
b. diminishment
c. depression
d. shrinkage
25. Which of the following would be a promise of bunco schemes?
a. income for life
b. something for nothing
c. double your money
d. All of the above.
Part D -
1. This is least likely to be motivation for murder by a drug-selling gang.
a. protect territory from rival gangs
b. prevent repeated rip-offs by armed robbers
c. police surveillance
d. discipline suspected "snitches"
2. A defense of entrapment is most common in these types of cases.
a. robbery
b. conspiracy
c. terrorism
d. drug-selling
3. Drugs such as amphetamines and methamphetamines, which lead to psychological dependence, are classified as which type of drug?
a. narcotics
b. sedatives
c. stimulants
d. hallucinogens
4. Drug-selling criminals typically use which type of organizational structure to distribute their illicit goods?
a. traditional sale-marketing pyramid
b. Ponzi structure
c. clandestine sales structure
d. "cells" as a form of structure
5. The production of each pound of meth produced in clandestine laboratories results in an estimated ______pounds of hazardous waste.
a. 2-3
b. 4-5
c. 5-6
d. 8-9
6. According to the text, ______are sophisticated crime mobs dealing primarily in crack in major U.S. cities. They are characterized by ruthless and extensive violence.
a. prison gangs
b. Jamaican "posses"
c. street gangs
d. La Cosa Nostra
7. ______are stand-alone programs that are disguised as other programs that innocent users pass to one another, usually in the form of an e-mail attachment.
a. Crackers
b. Flies
c. Logic bombs
d. Trojan horses
8. Regarding the internet and computer technology, the technique of taking small slices to deceptively acquire the whole is known as ______ fraud.
a. salami
b. onion
c. bologna
d. artichoke
9. The apprehensive driver typically flees the scene of an accident for which of the following reason?
a. no insurance
b. intoxication
c. fear
d. All of the above.
10. All sports wagering, legal and illegal, is aided by the local press, which gives the day's______, or betting odds for these events.
a. score
b. chance
c. line
d. square
11. Most cities large enough to support a variety of prostitutes will have a ______ area where prostitutes use the client's car as the place to perform the illegal sex act.
a. lane
b. stroll
c. roundabout
d. hideout
12. In organized crime, the hierarchy of command begins with the ______.
a. regional boss or chief
b. overbosses
c. underbosses
d. owner
13. ______are usually carefully planned and executed. Victims are selected for both their symbolic and their publicity value.
a. Bombings
b. Kidnappings
c. Physical assaults
d. Assassinations
14. ______are committed by terrorists primarily for their propaganda value.
a. Bombings
b. Hijackings
c. Cyber attacks
d. Robberies
15. According to the text, all of the following are essential objectives for terrorists when deciding to commit acts of atrocities except:
a. produce paralyzing fear
b. provoke existing political establishments to commit counter atrocities
c. publicity
d. money
16. ______founded The Order, a violent white supremacist group, in 1983.
a. Robert Jay Mathews
b. Timothy McVeigh
c. William Pierce
d. Alan Berg
17. The Middle East's Islamic Resistance Movement is more widely known as ______.
a. dar al-Islam
b. Hizbollah
c. Hamas
d. Al-Qaeda
18. This group commits many incidents of property destruction.
a. Hizbollah
b. Animal Liberation Front (ALF)
c. Earth Liberation Front (ELF)
d. b and c only
19. Mustard gas is a ______agent.
a. nerve
b. blister
c. blood
d. biological
20. ______fright is not uncommon among witnesses about to testify. This fear is often based on the reluctance to get up and talk in front of a group of people.
a. Stage
b. Courtroom
c. Authority
d. None of the above.
21. ______is used as a euphemism for corruption and crime in law enforcement agencies.
a. Morale
b. Virtues
c. Ethics
d. Jargons
22. The term jury ______is becoming more common in the courthouse of America and it involves the jury's not-guilty verdict is influenced by a mistrust of the police witness.
a. nullification
b. awareness
c. distrust
d. denunciation
23. An officer's misuse of his or her police authority for personal gain is known as ______.
a. corruption
b. misconduct
c. ethical awareness
d. unethical behavior
24. Proactive supervision involves an acknowledgement of the existence of the continuum of ______ and the need to be vigilant for even the most minor unethical acts.
a. negotiation
b. compromise
c. understanding
d. All of the above.
25. ______care is care fairly and properly taken in response to the circumstances of a situation, such care as an ordinary prudent person would take in the same time frame, conditions, and act(s).
a. Mandatory
b. Extreme
c. Reasonable
d. Defensive