Part A -
1. Which of the following is a true statement regarding measurement?
a. It becomes problematic when concepts are defined and then communicated as if they were independent of the measures used.
b. There is no one right way to measure concepts in social work research.
c. It can be defined as the process of assigning numbers or other symbols to characteristics or attributes of a concept according to specified rules.
d. All of the above.
2. Which of the following best defines an attribute in social work research?
a. Something with no fixed numeric value.
b. The options within a variable.
c. A concept that means the same thing to one person as it does to another.
d. The characteristics of a given research design.
3. An operational definition is one that:
a. Goes beyond a nominal definition of a concept to define it in a way that enables measurement.
b. Defines a concept in such a way that it means the same thing to one person as it does to another.
c. Is similar to a description one would find in a dictionary.
d. Both a and b.
4. The three ways to measure concepts are:
a. Quantitative, qualitative, and mixed methods.
b. Survey research, telephone interviewing, and participant observation.
c. Asking questions, making observations, and consulting existing records.
d. Self-administered questionnaires, computer-assisted telephone interviewing, and semi-structured surveys.
5. A researcher is using data from the Census 2000 to ask new research questions that go beyond the purpose for which the Census data were collected. This type of data is:
a. Secondary data.
b. Primary data.
c. Biased data.
d. Qualitative data.
6. Which of the following best describe the main sources of data for qualitative research?
a. Secondary data.
b. Unstructured observation and in-depth interviews.
c. Numbers and counting things.
d. Structured observation, experiments, and survey research.
7. Which of the following best describe the main sources of data for quantitative research?
a. Unstructured observation and in-depth interviews.
b. Primary data.
c. Words and images.
d. Structured observation, experiments, and survey research.
8. Which of the following represent a close-ended question used in survey research?
a. What have you been doing in the past four weeks to find employment?
b. What types of barriers have you experienced in the past four weeks as you try to find employment?
c. Have you checked with friends or relatives in the past four weeks to find employment?
d. What emotions have you experienced in the past four weeks as you try to find employment?
9. A structured survey is one in which:
a. A computer asks the questions and records the responses.
b. The interviewer asks questions as they are written with the aim of standardizing the administration process as much as possible.
c. The majority of questions are close-ended questions.
d. Both b and c.
10. A semi-structured survey is one in which:
a. The majority of questions are close-ended questions.
b. The interviewer is free to clarify the questions and follow up on the participant's responses.
c. A computer asks the questions and records the responses.
d. The interviewer asks questions as they are written with the aim of standardizing the administration process as much as possible.
11. When survey respondents feel pressured to respond to questions in a certain way regardless of whether the response is true, this is known as:
a. Social desirability.
b. Social consciousness.
c. Observer interference.
d. Response bias.
12. Which of the following represents a strength of reviewing existing records as a method of social work research?
a. It can reduce the data-collection burden on respondents.
b. It can help the researcher avoid the time and expenses of collecting primary data.
c. It effectively avoids both observer interference and social desirability bias.
d. Both a and b.
13. Researchers can be confident in research findings generated by the use of standardized instruments when:
a. The standardized instrument is based on evidence-based practice.
b. The standardized instrument incorporates sufficient self-report measures.
c. The standardized instrument accurately measures the variables of concern.
d. The standardized instrument has been developed by the National Institutes of Health or other government sponsored institution.
14. A score of 5 or more on the short form of the Geriatric Depression Scale indicates the respondent is likely experiencing depression. A score of 5 in this instance is known as what?
a. A cutting score.
b. A population norm for older adults.
c. A scale score.
d. The extent of measurement error.
15. Random error refers to which of the following?
a. Errors that have a definite pattern.
b. Errors that reflect outdated population norms.
c. Errors that are neither consistent nor patterned.
d. Errors generated during the process of random assignment.
16. A measure is considered valid when it:
a. Contains no observer interference or social desirability.
b. Is able to generate consistent results each time the measure is administered.
c. Is a standardized instrument with accurate population norms.
d. Accurately represents the concept of interest to a high degree.
17. A measure is considered reliable when it is:
a. A standardized instrument with accurate population norms.
b. Able to generate consistent results each time the measure is administered.
c. Accurately able to represent the concept of interest to a high degree.
d. Able to generate the same results each time the measure is administered, even when respondents have changed.
18. Each item on the licensing exam for social workers is designed to address issues that are seen in everyday social work practice. A committee of expert social workers read each item together. As a group, they decide if the item is a reflection of current social work practice. What type of validity is being addressed in this process?
a. Scorer validity.
b. Content validity.
c. Construct validity.
d. Criterion-related validity.
19. Which form of reliability requires the researcher to design two instruments?
a. Test-retest reliability.
b. Interrater reliability.
c. Internal consistency.
d. Parallel forms reliability
20. Interrater reliability refers to which of the following?
a. The extent of agreement of rating by the same observer at different points in time.
b. How consistent a measure is when it is administered twice in a relatively short time frame.
c. The percentage of agreement between two observers.
d. The extent to which all the items included in an index or scale for a single concept hold together
21. Below are items found on several different questionnaires. Which is a dynamic measure?
a. How many hours of television did you watch last week? ____
b. During the last fiscal tax year, estimate your gross family income? _______
c. Indicate your marital status. Never Married ___ Divorced ___
d. Separated ___ Widowed ___
22. Below are items found on a survey given to clinical social workers regarding the condition of a client. Which of these items is a state measure?
a. Does your client employ religiosity in the daily process of decision-making? Yes ___ No ___.
b. What is your client's IQ score? _____
c. What your client's score on the Marital Satisfaction Scale?
d. None of the above.
23. Which is an example of anordinal measurement?
a. A physician asks the question, "On a scale of zero to 10, what is your current level of pain?"
b. "Are you currently employed?"
c. "What is your number of years of education?"
d. "What is your current income?"
24. Which is an example of aratio measurement?
a. Centigrade temperature.
b. Number of children.
c. Gender.
d. Level of depression.
25. Which is a key feature to induce subjects to respond to a questionnaire?
a. High levels of validity.
b. A reliability coefficient of at least .8.
c. Control of alternative explanations.
d. First impressions of the questionnaire.
Part B -
1. A sampling plan does which of the following?
a. Justifies the choices researchers make as they collect data.
b. Helps researchers formulate research questions and test hypotheses.
c. Outlines where the data will come from.
d. Both a and c.
2. Which of the following best defines an element in research?
a. The totality of persons, events, and organizational units that the research problem is focused on.
b. Each member or entity in a population.
c. A subset of the population
d. The size of the sample.
3. When making an inference, a researcher is doing which of the following?
a. Claiming that what holds true for the sample is likely true for the population from which the sample was drawn.
b. Conducting nonprobability sampling.
c. Minimizing sampling error.
d. Gaining access to a quality sampling frame.
4. Developing clarity about the population a researcher intends to study involves which of the following?
a. Achieving greater clarity about the focus of the research.
b. Achieving greater precision in reporting the research procedures and findings.
c. Defining the boundaries of a population so that others will be clear about exactly who is included and who is not.
d. All of the above.
5. The decision to sample is based primarily on:
a. The researcher's skill in sampling effectively.
b. The statistical methods the researcher's plans to employ.
c. Feasibility of the research relative to the size of the population.
d. The cultural diversity of the sample.
6. Which of the following best describes a sampling frame?
a. A list of all the elements in a population.
b. A list of all the elements in a population from which the sample is selected.
c. The totality of all population elements.
d. A rank-ordered list of all the elements in a population from which the sample is selected.
7. A biased sampling frame is one that:
a. Cannot accurately represent the population.
b. Does not include sufficient numbers of persons from vulnerable or oppressed populations.
c. Produces systematic error in the research study.
d. Both a and c.
8. If the sampling procedure you are using results in every element in the sampling unit having a known chance of being selected, then you are using which of the following?
a. Nonprobability sampling.
b. Random sampling.
c. Probability sampling.
d. A biased sampling frame.
9. The major advantage of probability sampling is that it:
a. Permits generalization from the sample to the population from which the sample was drawn.
b. Allows purposeful inclusion or exclusion of elements in the sample.
c. Supports the use of a pre-experimental research design.
d. Permits generalization from the sample to the larger population beyond that which the sample was drawn.
10. A nonprobability sample is a procedure in which:
a. Claims are supported that the sample is representative and permits generalization to the larger population from which the sample was drawn.
b. All the elements in the population have an unknown and usually different chance of being included in the sample. (p. TBD
c. Explanatory and descriptive research questions may be confidently answered.
d. All of the above.
11. To draw a sample, the researcher selects elements from the sample one at a time at random so that each element has a known and equal chance of being selected. The researcher is using which of the following sampling procedures?
a. Nonprobability sampling.
b. Stratified random sampling.
c. Proportionate sampling.
d. Simple random sampling
12. A researcher interested in making inferences believes that the outcome of interest varies across various subgroups of the population and that subgroups may be underrepresented using simple random sampling procedures. Which of the following sampling methods would be best to use in this case?
a. Quota sampling.
b. Stratified random sampling.
c. Purposive sampling.
d. Simple random sampling.
13. A researcher selects the most available elements to be included in a sample. The sampling method being used here is:
a. Proportionate sampling.
b. Convenience sampling.
c. Purposive sampling.
d. Cluster sampling.
14. The decision to use non-probability sampling approach should be
a. Based on funding availability.
b. Intentional.
c. Researcher skills and knowledge.
d. The need to generalize findings.
15. In which of the following sampling methods does increasing the sample size allow the researcher to claim greater representation to the population?
a. Biased sampling.
b. Nonprobability sampling.
c. Quota sampling.
d. Probability sampling.
16. Sampling error is defined as:
a. How sure a researcher can be that the results of the sample represent the population.
b. The degree of difference between the sample and the population from which it was drawn.
c. The degree of variability in the population on key variables.
d. The point at which additional sampling produces no new insights or observations.
17. A confidence level of 95% means that:
a. If the same study were conducted 100 times with random samples drawn from the same population, it would represent the true population value 95 times.
b. If the same study were conducted 100 times with random samples drawn from the same population, it would not represent the true population value 95 times.
c. There is a 95% margin of error in terms of the accuracy of the research findings.
d. If the same study were conducted 100 times with random samples drawn from the same population, it would represent the true population value 5 times.
18. In terms of the margin of error, which of the following is true?
a. It is influenced by the size of the population.
b. It is influenced by the size of the sample.
c. It is calculated by dividing 1 by the square root of the number of elements in the sample.
d. Both b and c.
19. Which of the following should be considered when determining sample size?
a. The number of variables the researcher is interested in.
b. The expected level of respondent attrition.
c. The variability of the population.
d. All of the above.
20. Which of the following represents a viable method for estimating respondent attrition?
a. Interview potential respondents to assess who may consider dropping out of the study.
b. Examine the literature to determine dropout rates for similar studies.
c. Offer incentives to participants to encourage them to remain in the study.
d. All of the above.