Assignment Task: Consider the claim that "There is no synthetic a priori knowledge." If this claim were true, could it be analytic? If it were true, could it be known a posteriori? If the claim is true but cannot be analytic or a posteriori, would it have to be synthetic a priori? If so, is it possible to consistently hold this claim?
Which is most plausible-rationalism, empiricism, or the Kantian synthesis? Why?