What occurred to leontief paradox if human capital embodied


What happened to the Leontief paradox when human capital embodied in U.S. exports was accounted for as a separate factor of production? Does this help to explain why college graduates might favor international trade more than those with significantly less education and training? Is your answer to the second question consistent with the predictions of the Stopler-Samuelson theorem?

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Microeconomics: What occurred to leontief paradox if human capital embodied
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