Problem:
Suppose that as you finish a valuation exercise on January 1, 20X1, using the abnormal earnings model, you forecast the abnormal earnings to be $50 at the end of 20X6. From that point, abnormal earnings is expected to grow at 2 percent. The discount rate is 10 percent. The present value factor for a single sum, 5 years, 10%, is 0.681.
Required:
Question: What is the present value as of January 1, 20X1 of the abnormal earnings beyond 5 years?
Note: Please show how to work it out.