Assignment:
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Which of the following combining forms means skin?
A. cutane/o
B. cyan/o
C. melan/o
D. onych/o
2. Which of the following combining forms means black?
A. cutane/o
B. cyan/o
C. melan/o
D. onych/o
3. Which of the following combining forms means nail?
A. cutane/o
B. cyan/o
C. melan/o
D. onych/o
4. Which of the following combining forms means blue?
A. cutane/o
B. cyan/o
C. melan/o
D. onych/o
5. Which of the following combining forms means hard?
A. kerat/o
B. cyan/o
C. melan/o
D. onych/o
6. All of the following combining forms mean skin except which one?
A. cutane/o
B. derm/o
C. dermat/o
D. seb/o
7. Which of the following combining forms means oil?
A. kerat/o
B. seb/o
C. melan/o
D. onych/o
8. What is the body's largest organ?
A. Liver
B. Brain
C. Stomach
D. Skin
9. The skin makes up what percentage of body weight?
A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 25%
D. 50%
10. Skin is composed of what two layers?
A. Dermis, hypodermis
B. Dermis, subcutaneous
C. Epidermis, dermis
D. Epidermis, hypodermis
11. Which of the following statements describes the epidermis?
A. The epidermis has cutaneous glands, hair follicles, and nerve endings.
B. The epidermis is the skin's most superficial layer.
C. The epidermis is the skin's deepest layer.
D. The dermis is composed of loose/areolar connective tissue over dense irregular connective tissue.
12. What is the hypodermis?
A. The layer of adipose tissue beneath the dermis
B. The layer of skin beneath the dermis
C. The layer of loose/areolar connective tissue beneath the dermis
D. The layer of stratified squamous epithelial tissue beneath the dermis
13. Where is the dermis in relation to the epidermis and hypodermis?
A. Deep to the epidermis
B. Superficial to the epidermis
C. Deep to the hypodermis
D. Deep to the epidermis and superficial to the hypodermis
14. Which layer of skin is best for subcutaneous injections?
A. Dermis
B. Epidermis
C. Dermis or hypodermis
D. Hypodermis
15. All of the following statements describe the dermis except which one?
A. The dermis has cutaneous glands, hair follicles, and nerve endings.
B. The dermis is the skin's most superficial layer.
C. The dermis is the skin's deepest layer.
D. The dermis is composed of loose/areolar connective tissue over dense irregular connective tissue.
16. All of the following are false regarding the hypodermis except which statement?
A. The hypodermis is the third layer of skin.
B. The hypodermis contains the skin's blood vessels, nerve endings and glands.
C. The hypodermis lies deep to the dermis, is composed of adipose tissue, and connects the skin to the body.
D. The hypodermis is composed of stratified squamous epithelial tissue.
17. Which of the following is not a layer of the epidermis?
A. The stratum basale
B. The stratum lucidum
C. The stratum corneum
D. The stratum keratum
18. Which layer of the epidermis has cells that are actively growing and dividing to produce new epidermis?
A. The stratum basale
B. The stratum lucidum
C. The stratum corneum
D. The stratum spinosum
19. What type of cell does the stratum basale contain?
A. Squamous
B. Cuboidal
C. Columnar
D. Transitional
20. The stratum basale dips into the dermis to form what?
A. Nail bed
B. Hypodermis
C. Sweat glands
D. Hair follicle
21. The stratum basale lies deep to which layer of the epidermis?
A. The stratum basale
B. The stratum lucidum
C. The stratum corneum
D. The stratum spinosum
22. All of the following have the stratum lucidum layer of the epidermis except which one?
A. Thin skin
B. Thick skin
C. Skin on the palms of hands
D. Skin with no hair
23. Which of the following is the most superficial layer of the epidermis?
A. The stratum basale
B. The stratum lucidum
C. The stratum corneum
D. The stratum spinosum
24. What is the difference in thick skin and thin skin?
A. Thin skin is thinner than thick skin.
B. Thick skin has hair.
C. Thin skin does not have the stratum lucidum layer while thick skin does.
D. Thick skin is found all over the body, while thin skin is found on lips, palms of hands and soles of feet.
25. What cell type in the epidermis is responsible for the skin's pigment?
A. Keratinocytes
B. Melanocytes
C. Tactile corpuscles
D. Dendritic cells
26. Which cells in the epidermis grow and divide?
A. Keratinocytes
B. Melanocytes
C. Tactile corpuscles
D. Dendritic cells
27. What is the hard, waterproof protein that fills keratinocytes?
A. Melanin
B. Keratin
C. Sebum
D. Corneum
28. What is cornification?
A. The process of epidermal cells filling with keratin and moving to the surface of the epidermis to form a durable waterproof layer
B. The process of skin pigmentation
C. The process of receptors allowing for fine touch
D. The process of the immune system being alerted by the presence of pathogens
29. What is the purpose of cornification?
A. To form a durable, waterproof layer on the surface of the skin
B. To give the skin color
C. To allow skin to feel fine touch
D. To protect the skin from pathogens
30. Melanocytes reside in what layer of the epidermis?
A. The stratum basale
B. The stratum lucidum
C. The stratum corneum
D. The stratum spinosum
31. What is the function of tactile corpuscles found in the skin?
A. To form a durable, waterproof layer on the surface of the skin
B. To give the skin color
C. To allow skin to feel fine touch
D. To protect the skin from pathogens
32. Dendritic cells are found in what layer of the epidermis?
A. The stratum basale
B. The stratum lucidum
C. The stratum corneum
D. The stratum spinosum
33. What is the function of dendritic cells in the skin?
A. To form a durable, waterproof layer on the surface of the skin
B. To give the skin color
C. To allow skin to feel fine touch
D. To protect the skin from pathogens
34. Which of the following are not found in the dermis?
A. Hair follicles
B. Nerve endings
C. Blood vessels
D. Melanocytes
35. The arrangement of what feature in the dermis creates unique fingerprints?
A. Keratin
B. Papillae
C. Cutaneous glands
D. Nerve endings
36. What type of connective tissue makes up the dermis?
A. Adipose tissue and loose/areolar tissue
B. Adipose tissue and dense irregular tissue
C. Collagen and elastic tissue
D. Loose/areolar tissue and dense irregular tissue
37. Fibroblast produces what two protein fibers in the dermis?
A. Loose/areolar and elastic
B. Collagen and dense irregular
C. Collagen and elastic
D. Loose/areolar and dense irregular
38. What is the function of elastic fibers in the skin?
A. Strength
B. Cushioning
C. Extensibility
D. Elasticity
39. What is the function of collagen fibers in the skin?
A. Strength
B. Cushioning
C. Extensibility
D. Elasticity
40. What is the definition of elasticity?
A. The ability to be stretched.
B. The ability to extend.
C. The ability to keep shape.
D. The ability to return to shape after being stretched.
41. How do vitamin A and C contribute to healthy skin?
A. Allow for elasticity.
B. Help with collagen production.
C. Help with elastic fiber production.
D. Help with melanin production.
42. All of the following are functions of the nerve cell endings in the dermis except which one?
A. Receptors for warm and cold
B. Receptors for pain and pressure
C. Receptors for hair movement
D. All of the answer choices are functions of the nerve cells in the dermis.
43. What is the function of the sebaceous gland?
A. To produce sebum
B. To produce milk
C. To produce sweat
D. To produce cerumen
44. What is the function of sweat?
A. Cool the body.
B. Nourish an infant.
C. Moisturize the skin.
D. Waterproof the ear.
45. What is the function of sebum?
A. Cool the body.
B. Nourish an infant.
C. Moisturize the skin and hair.
D. Waterproof the ear.
46. Which cutaneous gland produces sebum?
A. Sebaceous
B. Mammary
C. Apocrine
D. Ceruminous
47. All of the following are functions of lactic acid in sweat except which one?
A. Maintain a pH between 4 and 6.
B. Produce a scent that influences behavior.
C. Forms an acid mantle on the skin.
D. Reduces the number of pathogens on the skin.
48. All of the following is true about the hair follicle except which statement?
A. Hair follicles are found in the stratum basale.
B. Hair follicles are found in thin skin.
C. Hair follicles have dermal papillae at its base.
D. Hair follicles are found in thick skin.
49. What is the function of the dermal papillae at the base of the hair follicle?
A. Pigmentation
B. Strength
C. Texture
D. Nourishment
50. What is the function of keratinocytes as it relates to hair?
A. Pigmentation
B. Texture
C. Form the hair matrix
D. Move the hair
51. What is considered the hair's growth center?
A. Keratinocytes
B. Dermal papillae
C. Melanocyte
D. Hair follicle
52. What is the function of the arrector pili muscle?
A. Pigmentation
B. Strength
C. Movement
D. Nourishment
53. What type of hair is very fine,unpigmented and forms on the developing fetus?
A. Lanugo
B. Vellus
C. Terminal
D. Vellum
54. What type of hair is thick, coarse, and heavily pigmented?
A. Lanugo
B. Vellus
C. Terminal
D. Vellum
55. Which part of the hair extends out from the skin's surface?
A. Shaft
B. Hair follicle
C. Bulb
D. Root
56. All of the following are layers of hair except which one?
A. Inner medulla
B. Outer cuticle
C. Outer cortex
D. Middle cortex
57. What factor affects hair texture?
A. The shaft's cross sectional shape
B. The length of the shaft
C. The color of the hair shaft
D. The amount of keratin in the hair shaft
58. All of the following are stages of the hair's life cycle except which one?
A. Growing
B. Resting
C. Dormant
D. Dying
59. All of the following describe the nail plate except which one?
A. Free edge of the nail
B. Nail body
C. Visible portion of the nail
D. Nail root
60. What type of epidermal cells composes the eponychium of the nail?
A. Stratum basale cells
B. Stratum lucidum cells
C. Stratum corneum cells
D. Stratum granulosum cells
61. What is considered the nail's growth center?
A. Nail groove
B. Nail plate
C. Nail matrix
D. Nailfold
62. Which of the following is not a function of nails?
A. Protection
B. Grasping
C. Scratching
D. Appearance
63. Which of the following statements is not a description of how skin protects the body?
A. Cornified stratum corneum makes it hard for pathogens to enter.
B. The skin's surface has an acidic pH.
C. The skin has dendritic cells that respond to pathogens.
D. All of these are descriptions of how the skin protects the body.
64. Why is vitamin D production by the skin important to the body?
A. Vitamin D adds strength to the skin, making it hard to penetrate.
B. Vitamin D protects the skin from pathogens.
C. Vitamin D protects the skin from UV light.
D. Vitamin D is necessary for calcium absorption.
65. How does the process of sweating help the body regulate temperature?
A. Sweat is cold and the production of it decreases body temperature.
B. Sweat produced on the skin will evaporate and cool the body if body temperature is too high.
C. Sweat helps trap cool air against the skin thereby reducing body temperature.
D. Sweat causes vasodilation which allows the core temperature of the body to drop.
66. The fact that the epidermis is waterproof allows the skin to perform what function?
A. Nonverbal communication
B. Water retention
C. Vitamin D production
D. Sensation
67. What are the two ways in which wounds heal?
A. Fibrosis and granulation
B. Regeneration and contracture
C. Regeneration and fibrosis
D. Contracture and granulation
68. Wounds that heal by regeneration result in what?
A. The wound is healed with the same tissue that was damaged and normal function is restored.
B. The wound is healed with scar tissue and normal function is not restored.
C. The wound is healed with the same tissue that was damaged and normal function is not restored.
D. The wound is healed with scar tissue and normal function is restored.
69. Wounds that heal by fibrosis result in what?
A. The wound is healed with the same tissue that was damaged and normal function is restored.
B. The wound is healed with scar tissue and normal function is not restored.
C. The wound is healed with the same tissue that was damaged and normal function is not restored.
D. The wound is healed with scar tissue and normal function is restored.
70. Which of the following lists the steps to wound healing in the correct order?
A. Bleeding and clotting of the wound, wound contracture, granulation tissue fills in the wound's clot, a cut into the dermis
B. A cut into the dermis, bleeding and clotting of the wound, granulation tissue fills in the wound's clot, wound contracture
C. Wound contracture, a cut into the dermis, bleeding and clotting of the wound, granulation tissue fills in the wound's clot
D. A cut into the dermis, bleeding and clotting of the wound, wound contracture, granulation tissue fills in the wound's clot
71. Which of the following is not a sign of inflammation?
A. Redness
B. Cyanosis
C. Heat
D. Swelling
72. What causes blood vessels to dilate in the process of inflammation?
A. The presence of chemical mediators of inflammation
B. Too much blood at the site of injury
C. Increased pressure due to swelling
D. Increased blood vessel permeability
73. What is the purpose of blood vessel dilation in inflammation?
A. To alert the body to the injured area
B. To increase blood flow to the site of injury
C. To cause pain
D. To cause heat and redness
74. What is the purpose of leaky or permeable blood vessels in the process of inflammation?
A. To alert the body to the injured area
B. To increase blood flow to the site of injury
C. To allow fluid and other cells to exit the blood vessel and enter the tissue at the site of injury
D. To cause heat and redness
75. What creates the symptom of pain in the process of inflammation?
A. Dilated blood vessels
B. Fluid leaking from blood vessels into tissue
C. Pressure from increased fluid in tissues on nerve endings
D. Presence of mediators of inflammation
76. What creates the symptom of redness and heat in the process of inflammation?
A. Dilated blood vessels
B. Fluid leaking from blood vessels into tissue
C. Pressure from increased fluid in tissues on nerve endings
D. Presence of mediators of inflammation
77. What is the body's response to invasion?
A. Dilated blood vessels
B. Fluid leaking from blood vessels into tissue
C. Pressure from increased fluid in tissues on nerve endings
D. Inflammation
78. What type of burn is the most common?
A. First degree burn
B. Second degree burn
C. Third degree burn
D. Fourth degree burn
79. What type of burn is also referred to as a partial thickness burn?
A. First degree burn
B. Second degree burn
C. Third degree burn
D. Fourth degree burn
80. What type of burn involves the epidermis, the dermis and the hypodermis?
A. First degree burn
B. Second degree burn
C. Third degree burn
D. Fourth degree burn
81. All of the following are signs of a second degree burns except which one?
A. Pain
B. Redness
C. Blisters
D. Charring
82. All of the following are signs of a first degree burns except which one?
A. Pain
B. Redness
C. Blisters
D. Swelling
83. Which of the following is a sign of a third degree burn?
A. Pain
B. Redness
C. Blisters
D. Charring
84. How can we determine the extent of a burn in relation to the body's surface area?
A. The rule of nines
B. The degree of the burn
C. The rule of eleven
D. The rule percentage
85. Which statement incorrectly describes a change in skin as it ages?
A. The dermis gets thinner.
B. The skin sags and wrinkles.
C. Blood vessels are quicker to respond to temperature regulation.
D. The number of dermal sweat glands decreases.
86. Which statement correctly describes the effect of aging on hair?
A. Terminal hairs become coarser.
B. Hair on scalp becomes thicker.
C. Hair follicle sebaceous glands increase in number, causing hair to be oilier.
D. Loss of melanocytes in the skin has caused the hair to turn gray.
87. Which type of skin cancer is the most common?
A. Basal cellcarcinoma
B. Squamouscellcarcinoma
C. Malignantmelanoma
D. Malignantcarcinoma
88. What type of skin cancer starts in the melanocytes?
A. Basal cellcarcinoma
B. Squamouscellcarcinoma
C. Malignantmelanoma
D. Malignantcarcinoma
89. Which skin cancer starts from keratinocytes in the stratum spinosum?
A. Basal cellcarcinoma
B. Squamouscellcarcinoma
C. Malignantmelanoma
D. Malignantcarcinoma
90. Which of the following answer choices correctly lists the ABCDs of skin cancer?
A. Asymmetry, border, color, diameter
B. Asymmetry, border, cancerous, diameter
C. Abstract, border, color, diameter
D. Asymmetry, border, color, deadly
91. Which skin infection is caused by a bacterium?
A. Cellulitis
B. Warts
C. Tinea infections
D. Cancer
92. Which skin infection is caused by a fungus?
A. Cellulitis
B. Warts
C. Tinea infections
D. Cancer
93. What type of infection causes warts?
A. Bacteria
B. Fungus
C. Virus
D. Cancerous cells
94. All of the following are examples of fungal skin infections except which one?
A. Ringworm
B. Jock itch
C. Warts
D. Athlete's foot
95. Cellulitis is caused by what type of infection?
A. Bacteria
B. Fungus
C. Virus
D. Cancerous cells
96. Which skin infection is caused by a virus?
A. Cellulitis
B. Warts
C. Tinea infections
D. Cancer
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Which of the following combining forms means lymph node?
A. lymph/o
B. thym/o
C. lymphaden/o
D. immun/o
2. Which of the following combining forms means thymus gland?
A. lymph/o
B. thym/o
C. lymphaden/o
D. immun/o
3. Which of the following combining forms means lymph?
A. lymph/o
B. thym/o
C. lymphaden/o
D. immun/o
4. Which of the following combining forms means protection?
A. lymph/o
B. thym/o
C. lymphaden/o
D. immun/o
5. Lymph is similar to what other bodily fluid?
A. Blood
B. Plasma
C. Urine
D. Intracellular fluid
6. Which of the following statements about lymph and lymph vessels is false?
A. Lymph leaves the system of blood vessels through the capillaries due to blood pressure.
B. Lymph returns to the cardiovascular system through a network of open lymph capillaries and vessels that drain the tissues of lymph.
C. Valves inside the lymph vessels direct the flow of lymph in either direction.
D. Lymph vessels eventually drain into one of two collecting ducts, the thoracic duct and the right lymphatic duct.
7. Which of the following statements about lymph and lymph vessels is true?
A. Lymph leaves the system of blood vessels through the veins due to blood pressure.
B. Lymph returns to the cardiovascular system through a network of open lymph capillaries and vessels that drain the tissues of lymph.
C. Valves inside the lymph vessels direct the flow of lymph in either direction.
D. Lymph vessels eventually drain into one collecting duct.
8. Where do the thoracic and right lymphatic ducts deliver lymph?
A. Aorta
B. Inferior vena cava
C. Subclavian vein
D. None of these are correct.
9. Which duct drains lymph from the head, the right arm, and the right side of the thorax?
A. Right lymphatic duct
B. Thoracic duct
C. Subclavian vein
D. None of these are correct.
10. Which duct drains lymph from parts of the body other than the head, the right arm, and the right side of the thorax?
A. Right lymphatic duct
B. Thoracic duct
C. Subclavian vein
D. None of these are correct.
11. What moves lymph through lymph vessels?
A. The muscular layer of the lymph vessel
B. The skeletal muscle pump
C. The valves within the lymph vessel
D. None of these are correct.
12. The lymphatic system is closely connected to what other system?
A. Nervous
B. Endocrine
C. Cardiovascular
D. Muscular
13. Which lymphatic disorder is a tropical disease caused by a round worm that blocks lymphatic drainage?
A. Lymphadenitis
B. Elephantiasis
C. Allergies
D. HIV/AIDS
14. Which of the following is not a category of cells found in the lymphatic system?
A. Natural killer cells
B. T lymphocytes
C. B lymphocytes
D. Monocytes
15. Which cell type destroys bacteria, fight against transplanted tissues, attack cells infected by viruses, and destroy cancer cells?
A. Natural killer cells
B. T Helper cells
C. B Plasma cells
D. Monocytes
16. Which cell type stands guard to alert the body of pathogens entering through the skin?
A. Natural killer cells
B. T Helper cells
C. B Plasma cells
D. Dendritic cells
17. What type of T cell suppresses an immune response by inhibiting multiplication and chemical secretions from other T cells?
A. T Cytotoxic cells
B. T Helper cells
C. T Memory cells
D. T Regulatory cells
18. What type of T cells are important for nonspecific defense and specific immunity by recognizing foreign pathogens and activating the cells to fight them?
A. T Cytotoxic cells
B. T Helper cells
C. T Memory cells
D. T Regulatory cells
19. What type of T cells directly kill cells infected by viruses and cancer cells in specific immunity?
A. T Cytotoxic cells
B. T Helper cells
C. T Memory cells
D. T Regulatory cells
20. Which type of B cell constantly samples material from their environment, processes it, and then displays it for other cells to see?
A. BPlasma cells
B. BMemory cells
C. APCs
D. None of these are correct.
21. Which type of B cell is important in specific immunity because they produce antibodies, which are dissolved proteins in plasma that seek out specific foreign antigens for their destruction?
A. BPlasma cells
B. BMemory cells
C. APCs
D. None of these are correct.
22. Which type of B cell remembers pathogens that have been introduced to the body so that repeated exposure can be fought more swiftly?
A. BPlasma cells
B. BMemory cells
C. APCs
D. None of these are correct.
23. What lymphoid tissue is scattered throughout the mucous membranes lining tracts to the outside environment?
A. MALT
B. Peyer's patches
C. Lymph nodes
D. Tonsils
24. What lymphoid tissue is located at the distal end of the small intestine, just before the opening to the large intestine?
A. MALT
B. Peyer's patches
C. Lymph nodes
D. Tonsils
25. What is the function of Peyer's patches?
A. Stand guard against and fight any pathogens trying to enter the body.
B. Fight any bacteria moving into the small intestine from the colon.
C. Remove anything that may be potentially harmful in lymph.
D. Guard against pathogens entering the body through the nose or mouth.
26. What lymphoid tissue guards against pathogens entering the body through the nose or mouth?
A. MALT
B. Peyer's patches
C. Lymph nodes
D. Tonsils
27. What lymphoid tissue removes anything that may be potentially harmful in lymph?
A. MALT
B. Peyer's patches
C. Lymph nodes
D. Tonsils
28. Which lymphatic disorder is characterized by a lymph node that has become swollen and painful to the touch as a pathogen is being attacked by the lymph node's lymphocytes?
A. Lymphadenitis
B. Elephantiasis
C. Allergies
D. HIV/AIDS
29. Where are the adenoids located?
A. The roof of the nasopharynx
B. Laterally in the oropharynx
C. At the root of the tongue
D. None of these are correct.
30. Where are the palatine tonsils located?
A. The roof of the nasopharynx
B. Laterally in the oropharynx
C. At the root of the tongue
D. None of these are correct.
31. T-cells migrate from the red bone marrow to what organ to mature?
A. Spleen
B. Tonsils
C. Thymus
D. Peyer's patches
32. Which statement about the thymus is false?
A. T-cells migrate from the red bone marrow to the thymus gland where they mature.
B. The thymus is located in the superior mediastinum between the sternum and the aortic arch.
C. The thymus is well developed at birth and continues to develop during adulthood.
D. All of the statements are true.
33. What part of the spleen serves as a reservoir for lymphocytes and macrophages?
A. Red pulp
B. White pulp
C. Both red and white pulp
D. None of these are correct.
34. Which of the following is not one of the three lines of defense?
A. External barriers
B. Inflammation
C. Specific immunity
D. Antibiotic proteins
35. Which of the following is not considered part of the nonspecific resistance?
A. External barriers
B. Inflammation
C. Specific immunity
D. Fever
36. Which of the following is true about nonspecific resistance and specific immunity?
A. Nonspecific defenses are widespread, meaning they work to fight many pathogens without prior exposure.
B. Specific defenses work to fend off any pathogen in the same way every time the pathogen comes along in the body.
C. Specific immunity requires a prior exposure to a pathogen so the system can recognize the pathogen.
D. All of these statements are true.
37. Which of the following does not fall under the first line of defense?
A. Skin
B. Mucous membranes
C. Tears
D. Antimicrobial proteins
38. Which of the following falls under the second line of defense?
A. Inflammation
B. Mucous membranes
C. Tears
D. Mucus
39. How does keratin in skin help defend the body?
A. It forms an acid mantle which bacteria do not like.
B. It traps microbes.
C. It is a tough protein that bacteria cannot easily break through.
D. Neither answer is correct.
40. All of the following are functions of mucus and mucous membranes except which one?
A. Trap microbes.
B. Destroy pathogens.
C. Inhibit pathogens from progressing.
D. Initiate tissue repair.
41. All of the following are functions of inflammation except which one?
A. Trap microbes.
B. Remove debris and damaged tissue.
C. Limit the spread of pathogens.
D. Initiate tissue repair.
42. What is the correct sequence of events in the inflammatory process?
A. Vasodilation - margination - diapedesis - chemotaxis - phagocytosis
B. Vasodilation - diapedesis - chemotaxis - margination - phagocytosis
C. Vasodilation - margination - phagocytosis - diapedesis - chemotaxis
D. Vasodilation - diapedesis - margination - chemotaxis - phagocytosis
43. What are interferons?
A. Proteins activated by the presence of a pathogen
B. Chemicals released by virally-infected cells that encourage the production of anti-viral proteins
C. Chemicals that raise the body temperature
D. Chemicals released by damaged tissue to cause blood vessels to widen
44. What is the complement system?
A. A set of 20 inactive proteins activated by the presence of a pathogen
B. Chemicals released by virally-infected cells that encourage the production of anti-viral protein
C. Chemicals that raise the body temperature
D. Chemicals released by damaged tissue to cause blood vessels to widen
45. What are pyrogens?
A. A set of 20 inactive proteins activated by the presence of a pathogen
B. Chemicals released by virally-infected cells that encourage the production of anti-viral proteins
C. Chemicals released by activated macrophages that raise the body temperature
D. Chemicals released by damaged tissue to cause blood vessels to widen
46. Which of the following statements describes the function of basophils in the second line of defense?
A. Fight bacteria.
B. Release histamine to promote inflammation.
C. Attack worm parasites.
D. Become macrophages to phagocytize bacteria.
47. Which of the following statements describes the function of monocytes in the second line of defense?
A. Fight bacteria.
B. Release histamine to promote inflammation.
C. Attack worm parasites.
D. Become macrophages to phagocytize bacteria.
48. Which of the following statements describes the function of neutrophils in the second line of defense?
A. Fight bacteria.
B. Release histamine to promote inflammation.
C. Attack worm parasites.
D. Become macrophages to phagocytize bacteria.
49. Which of the following statements describes the function of eosinophils in the second line of defense?
A. Fight bacteria.
B. Release histamine to promote inflammation.
C. Attack worm parasites.
D. Become macrophages to phagocytize bacteria.
50. Which statement is false about MHC and APC?
A. MHC protein displays what is self and what is foreign.
B. If the epitope in the MHC is foreign a specific immune response is initiated.
C. Epitopes are displayed on an MHC protein on the surface of the APC.
D. MHCs process antigens and APCs present what was processed.
51. Which of the following statements about humoral immunity is false?
A. Humoral immunity involves B cells making antibodies.
B. Plasma B cells produce specific antibodies.
C. Humoral immunity begins when an APC in lymphoid tissue displays an epitope from its environment on an MHC protein.
D. Humoral immunity is also called cell-mediated immunity.
52. How long does it take for humoral immunity to accomplish antibody production in the first exposure to the pathogen?
A. 3-6 days
B. 2-5 days
C. 13-16 days
D. None of these are correct.
53. How long does it take for humoral immunity to accomplish antibody production in the second exposure to the pathogen?
A. 3-6 days
B. 2-5 days
C. 13-16 days
D. None of these are correct.
54. In humoral immunity, B cells clone themselves in the germinal centers of the lymphatic nodules to become what two types of cells?
A. Natural killer cells and helper cells
B. Natural killer cells and memory cells
C. Helper cells and plasma cells
D. Plasma cells and memory cells
55. Cellular immunity is not effective against what?
A. Cancer cells
B. Virally-infected cells
C. A bacterial skin infection
D. All of these answers are correct.
56. Humoral immunity is effective against what?
A. Cancer cells
B. Virally-infected cells
C. Pathogens present in the tissues
D. All of these answers are correct.
57. Which cells are involved in humoral immunity?
A. Neutrophils
B. T Cytotoxic cells
C. Plasma cells
D. Basophils
58. Which cells are involved in cellular immunity?
A. Neutrophils
B. T Cytotoxic cells
C. Plasma cells
D. Memory cells
59. Which cells are involved in both humoral and cellular immunity?
A. T Helper cells
B. T Cytotoxic cells
C. Plasma cells
D. Memory cells
60. In cellular immunity, which cells secrete interleukins to attract neutrophils and NK cells to the area, attract and activate macrophages to clean up any debris, and further activate more T cells and B cells?
A. T Cytotoxic cells
B. T Helper cells
C. T Memory cells
D. T Regulatory cells
61. In cellular immunity, which cells directly attack a pathogen or cancer cell?
A. T Cytotoxic cells
B. T Helper cells
C. T Memory cells
D. T Regulatory cells
62. Aiden is a 4 month old baby boy. When he was born his mother decided to breast feed him, instead of using formula. What type of immunity will baby Aiden develop from receiving mom's antibodies through her breast milk?
A. Natural active immunity
B. Natural passive immunity
C. Artificial active immunity
D. Artificial passive immunity
63. Gavin turned 4 years old and received vaccinations at his yearly physical examination. What type of immunity will Gavin develop from the vaccinations he receives?
A. Natural active immunity
B. Natural passive immunity
C. Artificial active immunity
D. Artificial passive immunity
64. Beth was hiking the mountains and got bitten by a rattlesnake. When she arrived at the hospital, she was given anti-venom to combat the snake bite. What type of immunity will Beth develop from the anti-venom?
A. Natural active immunity
B. Natural passive immunity
C. Artificial active immunity
D. Artificial passive immunity
65. Mary got the chicken pox from her little brother when she was 6. She will most likely not contract this disease again. What type of immunity is described in this scenario?
A. Natural active immunity
B. Natural passive immunity
C. Artificial active immunity
D. Artificial passive immunity
66. What term is used to indicate that the body created its own immunity?
A. Passive
B. Active
C. Natural
D. Artificial
67. What term is used to indicate the immunity was acquired through someone or something else?
A. Passive
B. Active
C. Natural
D. Artificial
68. Which statement is false regarding T cells?
A. T Helper cells activate macrophages for nonspecific defenses like inflammation and fever.
B. In cellular immunity, T Helper cells first recognize what is foreign and then release interleukin-2 to have B cells react by cloning themselves and producing antibodies.
C. In cellular immunity T Helper cells recognize what is foreign and release interleukin-1 to get T Cytotoxic cells to clone themselves and attack.
D. All of these statements are true.
69. Which statement is false regarding T cells?
A. T Helper cells activate macrophages for nonspecific defenses like inflammation and fever.
B. Inhumoral immunity, T Helper cells first recognize what is foreign and then release interleukin-2 to have B cells react by cloning themselves and producing antibodies.
C. In cellular immunity T Helper cells recognize what is foreign and release interleukin-1 to get T Cytotoxic cells to clone themselves and attack.
D. All of these statements are true.
70. Which of the following are functions of the lymphatic system?
A. Fluid balance
B. Lipid absorption
C. Defense against disease
D. All of the answers are correct.
71. Which of the following is true about the effects of aging on the lymphatic system?
A. B cell production will decrease.
B. T cells production will decrease.
C. The hypersensitivity response will increase causing allergies to become worse.
D. T cells production will increase.
72. Which type of T cell is affected by HIV?
A. T Cytotoxic cells
B. T Helper cells
C. T Memory cells
D. T Regulatory cells
73. What causes acquired immunodeficiency syndrome?
A. Lymphadenitis
B. Elephantiasis
C. Allergies
D. HIV
74. Rheumatoid arthritis, Graves' disease, and myasthenia gravis all are examples of what kind of lymphatic disorder?
A. Lymphadenitis
B. Autoimmune
C. Allergies
D. HIV/AIDS
75. What lymphatic disorder is characterized by a hypersensitivity to a foreign antigen?
A. Lymphadenitis
B. Elephantiasis
C. Allergies
D. HIV/AIDS
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Which of the following combining forms refers to the tubes leading from the kidneys to the bladder?
A. ren/o
B. ureter/o
C. urethr/o
D. ur/o
2. Which of the following combining forms refers to the tube leading from the bladder to the outside of the body?
A. ren/o
B. ureter/o
C. urethr/o
D. ur/o
3. Which of the following combining forms refers to the urinary tract?
A. ren/o
B. ureter/o
C. urethr/o
D. ur/o
4. Which of the following combining forms refers to the urinary bladder?
A. ren/o
B. cyt/o
C. cyst/o
D. ur/o
5. Which of the following combining forms refers to a structure within the kidney?
A. ren/o
B. nephr/o
C. cyst/o
D. glomerul/o
6. Which of the following combining forms refers to the kidney?
A. azot/o
B. nephr/o
C. cyst/o
D. glomerul/o
7. What term refers to the removal of metabolic waste from the body?
A. Defecation
B. Excretion
C. Vomit
D. Urination
8. What are waste products produced by cells?
A. Metabolic waste
B. Feces
C. Colon
D. Urine
9. Which of the following organs is not a part of the excretory system?
A. Skin
B. Lungs
C. Liver
D. Bones
10. How does the skin function as a part of the excretory system?
A. By removing bilirubin
B. By removing carbon dioxide
C. By removing salts, lactic acid, and urea
D. By removing nitrogenous wastes
11. How do the kidneys function as a part of the excretory system?
A. By removing bilirubin
B. By removing carbon dioxide
C. By removing salts, lactic acid, and urea
D. By removing nitrogenous wastes
12. How does the liver function as a part of the excretory system?
A. By removing bilirubin
B. By removing carbon dioxide
C. By removing salts, lactic acid, and urea
D. By removing nitrogenous wastes
13. How do the lungs function as a part of the excretory system?
A. By removing bilirubin
B. By removing carbon dioxide
C. By removing salts, lactic acid, and urea
D. By removing nitrogenous wastes
14. What is the primary organ for the excretory system?
A. Skin
B. Lungs
C. Kidney
D. Liver
15. Which nitrogenous waste removed by the kidney is produced by the breakdown of amino acids?
A. Ammonia
B. Urea
C. Uric acid
D. Creatinine
16. Which nitrogenous waste is very toxic and must be converted to a less toxic waste by the liver?
A. Ammonia
B. Urea
C. Uric acid
D. Creatinine
17. Which nitrogenous waste removed by the kidney is produced by the breakdown of nucleic acids?
A. Ammonia
B. Urea
C. Uric acid
D. Creatinine
18. All of the following are functions of the kidney except which one?
A. Excretion of wastes in urine
B. Regulation of blood volume and pressure
C. Produce erythropoietin to stimulate red blood cell production
D. All the answers are correct.
19. Which statement about the location and position of the kidneys is true?
A. The kidneys are retroperitoneal.
B. The left kidney is slightly lower than the right due to the position of the liver.
C. The kidneys extend from L1 to L3.
D. The kidneys are protected inferiorly by the ribs.
20. What structure protects the kidney?
A. A fibrous renal capsule
B. A perirenal fat capsule
C. Both answers are correct.
D. None of these are correct.
21. What structure anchors the kidney to the posterior muscle wall of the body's abdomen?
A. Fibrous renal capsule
B. Perirenal fat capsule
C. Renal fascia
D. None of these are correct.
22. All structures entering or leaving the kidney do so at what structure?
A. Renal pelvis
B. Renal cortex
C. Renalmedulla
D. Renalhilum
23. What structure does not enter or leave the kidney?
A. Renal vein
B. Renal artery
C. Ureter
D. Urethra
24. Which of the following is not a layer of the kidney?
A. Renal capsule
B. Renal pelvis
C. Renal cortex
D. Renalmedulla
25. Which of the following is the inner layer of the kidney?
A. Renal capsule
B. Renal pelvis
C. Renal cortex
D. Renalmedulla
26. What structure empties into the renal pelvis?
A. Renal pyramid
B. Major calyx
C. Minor calyx
D. Nephron
27. What structure is the functional unit of the kidney?
A. Renal pyramid
B. Major calyx
C. Minor calyx
D. Nephron
28. Which of the following is not part of the renal tubule?
A. Glomerular capsule
B. Distal convoluted tubule
C. Proximal convoluted tubule
D. Nephron loop
29. Which of the following is a part of the renal corpuscle?
A. Glomerulus
B. Distal convoluted tubule
C. Proximal convoluted tubule
D. Nephron loop
30. Which of the following delivers blood to the glomerulus?
A. Glomerular capsule
B. Afferent arteriole
C. Efferent arteriole
D. Nephron loop
31. Which of the following allows blood to exit the renal corpuscle?
A. Glomerular capsule
B. Afferent arteriole
C. Efferent arteriole
D. Nephron loop
32. Which of the following represents the correct sequence of how fluid will flow through the renal tubule?
A. Proximal convoluted tubule - nephron loop - distal convoluted tubule - collecting duct - minor calyx
B. Distal convoluted tubule - collecting duct - minor calyx - proximal convoluted tubule - nephron loop
C. Nephron loop - proximal convoluted tubule - distal convoluted tubule - collecting duct - minor calyx
D. Minor calyx - proximal convoluted tubule - nephron loop - distal convoluted tubule - collecting duct
33. What are the specialized smooth muscle cells surrounding the afferent arteriole?
A. Macula densa
B. Juxtaglomerular cells
C. Afferent cells
D. None of these are correct.
34. What is missing from the following sequence; Glomerular capsule - nephron loop - DCT - Collecting duct - minor calyx?
A. PCT
B. Macula densa
C. Renal cortex
D. None of these are correct.
35. Which of the following represent the correct sequence of blood flow through the nephron?
A. Blood enters the kidney through the renal artery - efferent arteriole - glomerulus - afferent arteriole - peritubular capillaries - renal vein - exits the kidney.
B. Blood enters the kidney through the renal vein - afferent arteriole - glomerulus - efferent arteriole - peritubular capillaries - renal artery - exits the kidney.
C. Blood enters the kidney through the renal artery - afferent arteriole - glomerulus - efferent arteriole - peritubular capillaries - renal vein - exits the kidney.
D. Blood enters the kidney through the renal artery - afferent arteriole - peritubular capillaries - efferent arteriole - glomerulus - renal vein - exits the kidney.
36. Which of the following is not a process in urine formation?
A. Filtration
B. Reabsorbtion
C. Secretion
D. Excretion
37. Where does filtration occur?
A. Between the glomerulus and the glomerular capsule of the renal corpuscle
B. Between the proximal convoluted tubule and peritubular capillaries and continues along the renal tubule
C. In filtration, materials move from the peritubular capillaries to the tubules
D. None of these are correct.
38. What drives filtration in the kidney?
A. Energy
B. Gravity
C. Blood pressure
D. None of these are correct.
39. Which statement about the glomerular filtration rate is false?
A. The higher the pressure, the greater the glomerular filtration rate.
B. Adjusting the diameter of the afferent and efferent arterioles regulates the glomerular filtration rate.
C. The lower the pressure, the lower the glomerular filtration rate and the greater the amount of materials filtered.
D. The greater the glomerular filtration rate the greater the amount of materials filtered.
40. How are glucose and amino acids transported back into the capillaries during reabsorption?
A. Active transport
B. Osmosis
C. Blood pressure
D. Diffusion
41. How is water transported back into the capillaries during reabsorption?
A. Active transport
B. Osmosis
C. Blood pressure
D. Diffusion
42. All of the following remain in the tubules following reabsorption except which one?
A. Water
B. Nitrogenous waste
C. Mineral salts
D. Amino acids
43. All of the following remain in urine following secretion except which one?
A. Water
B. Nitrogenous waste
C. Excess hydrogen ions
D. All of the answers choices remain in urine following secretion.
44. What condition occurs if there is decreased kidney elimination of hydrogen ions or increased production of acidic substances through metabolism?
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
45. Diabetics may suffer from which of the following?
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
46. Hyperventilation may cause which of the following?
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
47. What is the distribution of water in the major fluid compartments of the body?
A. 35% intracellular, 65% extracellular
B. 50% intracellular, 50% extracellular
C. 30% intracellular, 70% extracellular
D. 65% intracellular, 35% extracellular
48. Which statement about fluids and electrolyte balance is true?
A. The concentration of urine is determined by the amount of water in it.
B. The principle electrolyte in the body is potassium.
C. Where salt goes, water will follow.
D. The volume of urine is determined by the amount of sodium in it.
49. Which statement accurately describes how the kidney maintains homeostasis of fluids and electrolytes in the body?
A. If the blood's concentration of solutes is lower than normal, the kidney will put out large volumes of dilute urine and if the blood's concentration of solutes is higher than normal, the kidney will put out small volumes of concentrated urine.
B. If the blood's concentration of solutes is higher than normal, the kidney will put out large volumes of dilute urine and if the blood's concentration of solutes is lower than normal, the kidney will put out small volumes of concentrated urine.
C. If the blood's concentration of solutes is lower than normal, the kidney will put out small volumes of dilute urine and if the blood's concentration of solutes is higher than normal, the kidney will put out large volumes of concentrated urine.
D. None of these are correct.
50. All of the following hormones regulate urine production except which one?
A. ADH
B. ANH
C. Aldosterone
D. Diuretic hormone
51. Which statement is false regarding the function of ADH in regulating urine volume and concentration?
A. Under the influence of ADH, the kidney conserves water and sodium.
B. If blood sodium concentration increases or blood pressure falls, the hypothalamus sends nerve signals to the posterior pituitary telling it to release ADH.
C. ADH targets distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts in the kidney to make them more permeable so more water is reabsorbed.
D. ADH only has an effect on water reabsorption, not sodium reabsorption.
52. Which statement is false regarding the function of aldosterone in regulating urine volume and concentration?
A. When aldosterone levels are up, urine output is increased with both water and sodium conserved in the blood, and decreased potassium in urine.
B. When aldosterone levels are up, more sodium ions are actively transported from the tubule to the peritubular capillaries.
C. When aldosterone levels are up, more potassium ions are secreted.
D. When aldosterone levels are up, urine output is reduced with both water and sodium conserved in the blood, and increased potassium in urine.
53. What structure regulates aldosterone secretion?
A. Glomerulus
B. Juxtaglomerular apparatus
C. Nephron loop
D. None of these are correct.
54. When does the juxtaglomerular apparatus secrete renin?
A. Hypotension
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. All of the answers are correct.
55. All of the following are ways ANH increases urine output except which one?
A. ANH dilates the afferent arterioles, while constricting the efferent arterioles in the kidney.
B. ANH inhibits the production of renin by the juxtaglomerular apparatus.
C. ANH inhibits sodium filtration in the nephron directly.
D. ANH inhibits the secretion of ADH from the posterior pituitary.
56. What is a diuretic?
A. Anything that increases urine production
B. Anything that affects urine production
C. Anything that decreases urine production
D. None of these are correct.
57. How does alcohol act as a diuretic?
A. By inhibiting the secretion of ADH
B. By increasing blood flow to the kidney
C. By inhibiting active transport of sodium
D. None of these are correct.
58. How does caffeine act as a diuretic?
A. By inhibiting the secretion of ADH
B. By increasing blood flow to the kidney
C. By inhibiting active transport of sodium
D. None of these are correct.
59. How do diuretic drugs act to increase urine volume?
A. By inhibiting the secretion of ADH
B. By increasing blood flow to the kidney
C. By inhibiting active transport of sodium
D. None of these are correct.
60. What structure carries urine from the renal pelvis to the urinary bladder?
A. Urethra
B. Ureters
C. Both of these answers are correct.
D. None of these are correct.
61. What is the maximum volume the bladder can hold?
A. 700 to 800 mL
B. 500 to 600 mL
C. 1000 mL
D. 500 mL
62. What structure compresses the urethra so that urine remains in the bladder?
A. Trigone
B. Internal urethral sphincter
C. Detrusor muscle
D. None of these are correct.
63. What is often the site of infection in the urinary bladder?
A. Trigone
B. Internal urethral sphincter
C. Detrusor muscle
D. None of these are correct.
64. Which muscle is under voluntary control?
A. External urethral sphincter
B. Internal urethral sphincter
C. Detrusor muscle
D. None of these are correct.
65. What is micturition?
A. The production of urine
B. The passing of urine
C. The production and passing of urine
D. None of these are correct.
66. Which statement represents the correct order of the reflex arc for micturition?
A. The reflex arc begins with stretch receptors sending signals to the sacral region of the spinal cord - stretch receptors receive signals in the urinary bladder's walls - the detrusor muscle contracts the internal urethral sphincter relaxes - parasympathetic neurons go from the spinal cord to the detrusor muscle - urine is passed.
B. The reflex arc begins with stretch receptors in the urinary bladder's walls - stretch receptors send signals to the sacral region of the spinal cord - the detrusor muscle contracts the internal urethral sphincter relaxes - parasympathetic neurons go from the spinal cord to the detrusor muscle - urine is passed.
C. The reflex arc begins with stretch receptors in the urinary bladder's walls - stretch receptors send signals to the sacral region of the spinal cord - parasympathetic neurons go from the spinal cord to the detrusor muscle - the detrusor muscle contracts the internal urethral sphincter relaxes - urine is passed.
D. The reflex arc begins with stretch receptors in the urinary bladder's walls -parasympathetic neurons go from the spinal cord to the detrusor muscle - stretch receptors send signals to the sacral region of the spinal cord - the detrusor muscle contracts the internal urethral sphincter relaxes - urine is passed.
67. What serves as the effector for the micturition reflex arc?
A. Bladder wall
B. Sacral region of the spinal cord
C. Internal urethral sphincter
D. None of these are correct.
68. Where are the afferent neurons for the micturition reflex arc located?
A. Bladder wall
B. Sacral region of the spinal cord
C. Internal urethral sphincter
D. None of these are correct.
69. Which of the following is a function of the urinary system?
A. All of these answers are correct.
B. Maintenance of the body's fluid and electrolyte balance
C. Maintenance of the body's acid/base balance
D. Regulation of blood pressure
70. Which is true regarding the effects of aging on the excretory system?
A. The size of the kidneys and the number of functioning nephrons decrease.
B. The glomerular filtration rate decreases.
C. Drugs are cleared less efficiently with age, so drugs remain in circulation longer.
D. Responsiveness to ADH increases in the elderly.
71. Which excretory system disorder is an inflammation of the urinary bladder usually caused by a bacterial infection?
A. Kidney stones
B. Glomerulonephritis
C. Renal failure
D. Cystitis
72. Which excretory system disorder is an inflammation of the urinary bladder usually caused by a bacterial infection that has traveled up the ureters to the renal pelvis?
A. Kidney stones
B. Glomerulonephritis
C. Pyelitis
D. Cystitis
73. Which excretory system disorder does not fall under the category of a UTI?
A. Pyelonephritis
B. Glomerulonephritis
C. Pyelitis
D. Cystitis
74. Which excretory system disorder is an inflammation of the filtration membrane in the glomerulus of the nephron?
A. Pyelonephritis
B. Glomerulonephritis
C. Pyelitis
D. Cystitis
75. Which excretory system disorder is treated by dialysis or a kidney transplant?
A. Kidney stones
B. Glomerulaonephritis
C. Renal failure
D. Cystitis