Problem
In his well-known hypothesis about income distribution and economic development, economist Simon Kuznets argued in the 1950s that developing countries must first suffer an increase in inequality as they grow. Only as economic development proceeds, Kuznets argued, will inequality begin to decline. What do you think is the logic behind Kuznets's theory? Recent research shows that the Kuznets relation no longer holds. Why do you think this is?
The response should include a reference list. Double-space, using Times New Roman 12 pnt font, one-inch margins, and APA style of writing and citations.