Problem:
Because IQ tests measure multiple, correlated abilities that often themselves correlate with dependent neuropsychological variables of interest, it is tempting to include IQ routinely in models of outcome. In the absence of an articulated model of function, IQ is a poorly specified latent variable that does not independently measure aptitude and potential or cause more specific cognitive processes, so that, generally, it should not be used as a covariate in investigating these processes. this is from an article. does this justify my point: The absence of a correlation between IQ and GPA may stem from restricted variability in the predictors within our sample. IQ scores showed modest dispersion (M = 101.6, SD = 13.5), and the age distribution was uneven, which can compress between-person differences in ability that typically grow more evident across broader, more heterogeneous age groups. In a university sample, additional range restriction is likely because admission processes already select for a minimum level of cognitive ability, further muting IQ-GPA associations. Thus, limited variability in both age and IQ may help explain the near-zero relation with academic performance. Future studies should recruit a more normally distributed age range and a broader academic pool (e.g., multiple institutions and programs) to increase variance in ability and performance, and then reassess the IQ-GPA relationship. Need Assignment Help?