The paper titled "Music for Pain Relief" (The Cochrane Database of Systematic Reviews, April 19, 2006) concluded, based on a review of 51 studies of the effect of music on pain intensity, that "Listening to music reduces pain intensity levels . . . However, the magnitude of these positive effects is small, the clinical relevance of music for pain relief in clinical practice is unclear." Are the authors of this paper claiming that the pain reduction attributable to listening to music is not statistically significant, not practically significant, or neither statistically nor practically significant?