State x has accepted the jurisdiction of the icj in a


Question: State X has accepted the jurisdiction of the ICJ in a unilateral declaration pursuant to Article 36(2) of the ICJ's statute. The declaration, however, contains the following provision: "This declaration shall not apply to disputes with regard to matters which are essentially within the domestic jurisdiction of State X as determined by State X."

(a) Is this provision valid?

(b) In a suit between State X and State Y, may State Y invoke this provision as to matters it considers within its own domestic jurisdiction? Explain.

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Business Law and Ethics: State x has accepted the jurisdiction of the icj in a
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