Problem: The Dark Ages got their name because it is thought that there was a decline in culture and sciences. However, many historians argue against this and I have to say that I agree. The notion that literature was not widespread is simply false. We have many manuscripts that date back to before 1100. They were mostly written by those who were a part of the church at the time. Priests, nuns, monks, etc were encouraged to write them. In the manuscripts, there were many different topics that could be found such as religious texts, scriptures, documentation of travel, medical remedies, and more. It is also notable that many women had an interest in literature, especially women of high status. Queen Emma of Normandy is an example of this. Some historians have gone so far as to say that literature was a symbol of power and wealth. Some believe that the term "Dark Ages" came about during the Enlightenment Era simply due to the heavy amount of religion that existed. I will agree that the works from the Dark Ages are very heavy-handed with religion. However, I do not believe that this means there was a lack of culture during the time. Agree or disagree?