Problem: A 28-year-old man presents with a firm, non-tender enlargement of his left testicle that has gradually increased in size over several weeks. He has no history of infection or trauma. Laboratory testing reveals elevated α-fetoprotein (AFP) and β-hCG levels. Which statement best explains why men in this age group have the highest incidence of this malignancy? The peak period of spermatogenic activity corresponds to an increased risk of germ cell mutation, leading to tumor formation. Germ cells are most mitotically active during adolescence and early adulthood, increasing the risk of malignant transformation. Prolonged androgen deficiency in middle age is associated with testicular tissue dysplasia. Chronic inflammation and fibrosis in older adults predispose to seminoma development. Need Assignment Help?