Part A
This part consists of 40 multiple choice questions. Each question has ONE and ONLY ONE correct answer. You need to select the correct answer by circling around the letter like this:
Question 1
Which of the following media is likely to have the greatest bandwidth?
A. Optical fibre
B. Twisted pair
C. Co-axial cable
D. Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) local loop
Question 2
Which one of the following operates at the Data Link layer?
A. Bridges
B. Hubs
C. Repeaters
D. Routers
Question 3
A packet, frame, and bits conversion process includes which layers (in order)?
A. Session, Transport, and Network
B. Network, Data Link, and Physical
C. Presentation, Session, and Transport
D. Network, Transport, and Data Link
Question 4
What is the purpose of the ip route command?
To assign a name to an IP destination network
To verify the route to an IP destination network
To define a static route to an IP destination network
To view the distance to an IP destination network
Question 5
An IP Version 4 subnet has an address of 128.211.85.0/25 in variable length subnet masks (VLMS). What is the maximum number of host computers (including routers) that can be part of this subnet?
A. 254
B. 126
C. 510
D. 128
Question 6
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP routing issue. What command will show the administrator all possible paths to a destination?
A. show ip eigrp topology active
B. show ip eigrp neighbors detail
C. show ip eigrp topology all-links
D. show ip eigrp topology summary
Question 7
Which of the following best describes the difference between an EGP and an IGP?
EGPs are used within autonomous systems, and IGPs are used between autonomous systems
IGPs are routed protocols, and EGPs are routing protocols.
IGPs are used within autonomous systems, and EGPs are used between autonomous systems
IGPs are used between ISPs, and EGPs are used in LANs.
Question 8
Which statement is true concerning directly connected routes?
They appear in the routing table as soon as cables are connected to the router
They appear in the routing table when an IP address is configured on an interface
They appear in the routing table when the no shutdown command is entered in router interface configuration mode
They appear in the routing table when the show interface command shows that the interface is up, line protocol is up.
Question 9
Why do link-state protocols converge faster than most distance vector protocols?
Distance vector protocols compute their routing tables before sending routing updates; link-state protocols do not.
Link-state protocols have lower computing requirements than distance vector protocols
Link-state protocols send updates out more often than distance vector protocols
Distance vector protocols receive more packets per update than link-state protocols.
Question 10
Which command allows viewing of RIP routing updates as they are sent and received?
show ip rip
debug ip protocols
debug ip rip
show ip rip update
Question 11
During an OSPF DR/BDR election, what is used to determine the DR or BDR when participating OSPF routers have identical interface priorities?
The highest OSPF process ID
The lowest interface IP address
The lowest interface cost
The router ID
Question 12
You have connected six PCs to a Fast Ethernet switch (100Mbps). Each PC is plugged into a single switch port. All PCs are equipped with 10/100 NICs. How much bandwidth is available to each PC?
A. 16.6Mbps
B. 0.6Mbps
C. 100Mbps
D. 10Mbps
Question 13
Which command allows a router to advertise default static routes via OSPF?
A. redistribute static
B. network 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 area 0
C. default-information originate
D. Default routes are local only and cannot be advertised using OSPF.
Question 14
Which one of the following is NOT a connectionless protocol?
A. User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
B. Internet Protocol (IP)
C. Ethernet
D. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
Question 15
Which one of the following is NOT provided by an Ethernet LAN?
A. Flow Control
B. Multicasting
C. Broadcasting
D. Error detection
Question 16
What is the function performed by Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)?
A. Maps a known physical address to a logical address
B. Maps a known logical address to a physical address
C. Communicates error messages and control messages between devices
D. Obtains physical and logical addresses from a TFTP server
Question 17
Given host name IP addresses:
myhost 200.54.42.10
printsvr 200.55.42.30
The machine myhost needs to send data to printsvr. The routing table on myhost has no entry
for printsvr. The routing table on myhost has no entry for the 200.55.42.0 network.
Which one is the next hop that the routing algorithm decides in order to send the data to printsvr?
A. RARP
B. Default
C. ARP cache
D. 200.54.42.255
Question 18
What is the network address of the subnet address 156.192.200.15 255.255.192.0?
A. 156.192.192.0
B. 156.192.0.0
C. 156.192.200.0
D. 156.192.192.255
Question 19
What are one direct benefits of using variable length subnet masks?
A. It improves the response time of ping.
B. It reduces the information stored in the ARP cache.
C. It permits more efficient use of the IP address space.
D. It permits multiple IP addresses on the same interface.
Question 20
Which mode will a configured router display at login?
A. global configuration mode
B. setup mode
C. ROM monitor mode
D. User EXEC mode
Question 21
If an engineer wants to verify changes that he has been making on a router, which of the following commands will allow him to check the router's current configuration before saving?
show flash
show version
show running-config
show startup-config
Question 22
Which mechanism can be used to avoid a count-to-infinity loop?
Split horizon
Route poisoning
Hold-down timer
Split horizon with poison reverse
Question 23
Refer to the following output, what is the administrative distance of the route to the 172.30.3.0 network?
C 172.30.1.0 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0
C 172.30.2.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0
R 172.30.3.0 [120/1] via 172.30.2.2, 00:00:05, Serial0/0/0
1
12
24
120
Question 24
Which metric does RIP use to determine the best path for a message to travel on?
Bandwidth
Hop count
Varies with each pack sent
Administrative distance
Question 25
What command-line interface command can be used to check the routing table of a router?
show ip interface brief
show ip route
show ip protocols
show controllers
Question 26
Which command puts a router into routing protocol configuration mode?
router rip
Ctrl-z
Interface s0/0
Network 201.203.50.0
Question 27
When an engineer wants to verify the application layer (Layer 7) software between source and destination stations, which of the following commands should be used?
telnet
ping
debug
traceroute
Question 28
Category 5 and Category 6 UTP typically use which type of connector?
STP
BNC
RJ-45
RJ-11
Question 29
What one method allowed the continued use of IPv4 addressing and helped delay the need to implement IPv6?
Subnetting with variable-length
The IPv4 address range was expanded
Classful routing was implemented
Supernetting was implemented
Question 30
What information is "burned in" to a network interface card?
NIC
MAC address
Hub
LAN
Question 31
What action will enable classful routing behaviour on a router?
Configuring RIPv1 or IGRP
Configuring a link-state routing protocol
Using only classful netmasks on all networks
Issuing the no ip classless command
Question 32
Which router commands, if executed from the global configuration prompt, will enable IGRP routing for autonomous system 77 and network 172.25.0.0?
A. router igrp 77 then network 172.25.0.0
B. router igrp 172.25.0.0
C. router igrp then network 172.25.0.0
D. network 172.25.0.0
Question 33
How do you disable automatic summarization in RIPv2?
Router(config)#no auto-summary
Router(config-router)#no auto-summary
Router(config-if)#no auto-summary
It is not recommended that you disable automatic summarization
Question 34
Which of the following is an Exterior Gateway Protocol?
Routing Information Protocol (RIP)
Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
C. Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)
D. Open Shortest Path First Protocol (OSPF)
Question 35
Which of the following functions is performed by both UDP and TCP?
A. They provide destination and source port numbers.
B. They initiate a three-way handshake.
C. They allocate dynamic datagram size.
D. They acknowledge datagram receipt.
Question 36
Which router component stores the router's backup/startup configuration file?
A. RAM
B. ROM
C. NVRAM
D. Flash
Question 37
The following IP address is listed in decimal format:
172.16.8.8
What is the corresponding binary value of this IP address?
A. 10101100.00010000.00001000.00001000
B. 10101100.00100000.11100000.00000100
C. 10101100.00010000.00000010.00000111
D. 11001100.00001111.00011001.00001000
Question 38
With an IP address and subnet mask of 172.10.10.4 255.255.255.128, what is the number of possible subnets?
A. 510
B. 254
C. 1,024
D. 4,094
Question 39
Given the following output from the show interface command, what can you assume about this interface?
Ethernet0 is administratively down, line protocol is down
A. Ethernet0 is operational.
B. Ethernet0 is not plugged into the network.
C. There is a hardware problem with the Ethernet0 interface.
D. Ethernet0 has been disabled or shut down.
Question 40
With an IP address and subnet mask of 172.10.10.4 255.255.255.128, what is the full range of IP addresses in this subnet?
A. 172.10.10.1 through 172.10.10.254
B. 172.10.10.129 through 172.10.10.254
C. 172.10.10.0 through 172.10.10.127
D. 172.10.10.1 through 172.10.10.12
Question 41
Which application layer protocol is widely used to support resolving host names to IP addresses?
FTP
SNMP
DNS
WWW
Question 42
Which statement is true concerning directly connected routes?
A. They appear in the routing table as soon as cables are connected to the router
B. They appear in the routing table when an IP address is configured on an interface
C. They appear in the routing table when the no shutdown command is entered in router interface configuration mode
D. They appear in the routing table when the show interface command shows that the interface is up, line protocol is up.
Question 43
Which of the following best describes a default route?
A. Urgent-data route manually entered by a network administrator
B. Route used when part of the network fails
C. Route used when the destination network is not listed explicitly in the routing table
D. Present shortest path
Question 44
Which of the following physical ports and/or cables on a router require clocking to be configured in a back-to-back connection?
A. Serial port with DTE cable
B. Console
C. Ethernet
D. Serial port with DCE cable
Question 45
Which type of cable connects a terminal and a console port?
A. Straight-through
B. Rollover
C. Crossover
D. Coax
Question 46
What is one reason to display the IP routing table?
To set the router update schedule
To identify the subnets discovered by the router and the routing protocols used to discover those subnets
To trace where datagrams are coming from
To set the parameters and filters for the router
Question 47
Which router commands, if executed from the global configuration prompt, will enable RIP routing for network 172.23.0.0?
A. router rip 13 and network 172.23.0.0
B. router rip all
C. router rip and network 172.23.0.0
D. network 172.23.0.0
Question 48
LAN switches use which of the following to make the forwarding decision?
A. IP address
B. MAC address
C. Network Address
D. Host address
Question 49
With what is the Application layer primarily concerned?
A. Providing services for user applications
B. Data representation
C. Dialog management
D. Data transport
Question 50
What is the broadcast address of the subnet address 178.55.20.88 255.255.0.0?
178.55.255.255
178.255.255.0
178.255.0.0
178.55.255.0