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Or does it come down to who has the better access to new

Do you think that the ever increasing demand for, and actual implementation of, increased transparency, coupled with ever increasing technology capabilities and the speed of information dissemenation, make arbitrage less likely? Or, does it come down to who has the better access to new information (i.e. greater technological capabilities)?

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Finance Basics: Or does it come down to who has the better access to new

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