Hey I answer the questions but on my feedback from my professor. He stated that I should draw out the contradiction and state it explicitly. I'm not understanding what he means. Can you just point me in the right directions.
Can I "universalize"-i.e., will (rationally endorse) as a universal law-my plan to borrow money without intending to repay it? Explain.
It is morally permissible for anyone in desperate financial circumstances to make a lying promise, that is, to promise to repay borrowed money with no intention of doing so.