Question 1. Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) can occur if the mother:
Is Rh-positive and the fetus is Rh-negative
Is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive
Has type A blood and the fetus has type O
Has type AB blood and the fetus has type B
Question 2. Examination of the throat in a child demonstrating signs and symptoms of acute epiglottitis may contribute to which life-threatening complication?
Retropharyngeal abscess
Laryngospasms
Rupturing of the tonsils
Gagging induced aspiration
Question 3. If the sinoatrial (SA) node fails, then at what rate (depolarizations per minute) can the atrioventricular (AV) node depolarize?
60 to 70
40 to 60
30 to 40
10 to 20
Question 4. What is the ratio of coronary capillaries to cardiac muscle cells?
1:1 (one capillary per one muscle cell)
1:2 (one capillary per two muscle cells)
1:4 (one capillary per four muscle cells)
1:10 (one capillary per ten muscle cells)
Question 5. Which cytokines initiate the production of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)?
IL-D1 and IL-6
IL-2 and TNF-a
IFN and IL-12
TNF-ß and IL-4
Question 6. What process allows the kidney to respond to an increase in workload?
Glomerular filtration
Secretion of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3
Increased heart rate
Compensatory hypertrophy
Question 7. Which type of antibody is involved in type I hypersensitivity reaction?
IgA
IgE
IgG
IgM
Question 8. Causes of hyperkalemia include:
Hyperparathyroidism and malnutrition
Vomiting and diarrhea
Renal failure and Addison disease
Hyperaldosteronism and Cushing disease
Question 9. What is the first stage in the infectious process?
Invasion
Colonization
Spread
Multiplication
Question 10. Which statement is true concerning the IgM?
IgM is the first antibody produced during the initial response to an antigen.
IgM mediates many common allergic responses.
IgM is the most abundant class of immunoglobulins.
IgM is capable of crossing the human placenta.
Question 11. An infant has a loud, harsh, holosystolic murmur and systolic thrill that can be detected at the left lower sternal border that radiates to the neck. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect?
Atrial septal defect (ASD)
Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
Atrioventricular canal (AVC) defect
Question 12. What is the chief predisposing factor for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn?
Low birth weight
Alcohol consumption during pregnancy
Premature birth
Smoking during pregnancy
Question 13. Which cardiac chamber has the thinnest wall and why?
The right and left atria; they are low-pressure chambers that serve as storage units and conduits for blood.
The right and left atria; they are not directly involved in the preload, contractility, or afterload of the heart.
The left ventricle; the mean pressure of blood coming into this ventricle is from the lung, which has a low pressure.
The right ventricle; it pumps blood into the pulmonary capillaries, which have a lower pressure compared with the systemic circulation.
Question 14. What is the direct action of atrial natriuretic hormone?
Sodium retention
Sodium excretion
Water retention
Water excretion
Question 15. What is the primary site for uncomplicated local gonococci infections in men?
Epididymis
Lymph nodes
Urethra
Prostate
Question 16. Which statement concerning benign tumors is true?
The resulting pain is severe.
Benign tumors are not encapsulated.
Benign tumors are fast growing.
The cells are well-differentiated.
Question 17. Which of the following is classified as a megaloblastic anemia?
Iron deficiency
Pernicious
Sideroblastic
Hemolytic
Question 18. Apoptosis is a(an):
Normal mechanism for cells to self-destruct when growth is excessive
Antigrowth signal activated by the tumor-suppressor gene Rb
Mutation of cell growth stimulated by the TP53 gene
Transformation of cells from dysplasia to anaplasia
Question 19. What is the functional unit of the kidney called?
Glomerulus
Nephron
Collecting duct
Pyramid
Question 20. Which hepatitis virus is known to be sexually transmitted?
A
B
C
D
Question 21. The glomerular filtration rate is directly related to which factor?
Perfusion pressure in the glomerular capillaries
Diffusion rate in the renal cortex
Diffusion rate in the renal medulla
Glomerular active transport
Question 22. Decreased lung compliance means that the lungs are demonstrating which characteristic?
Difficult deflation
Easy inflation
Stiffness
Inability to diffuse oxygen
Question 23. What is the most common cause of iron deficiency anemia (IDA)?
Decreased dietary intake
Chronic blood loss
Vitamin deficiency
Autoimmune disease
Question 24. Which drug may be prescribed orally for outbreak management of herpes simplex viral (HSV) infections?
Acyclovir (Zovirax)
5-Fluorouracil (5-FU)
Zidovudine (AZT) (Retrovir)
Bichloroacetic acid (BCA)
Question 25. In a normal, nonmutant state, an oncogene is referred to as a:
Basal cell
Target cell
Caretaker gene
Proto-oncogene
Question 26. What is the primary cause of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn?
Immature immune system
Small alveoli
Surfactant deficiency
Anemia
Question 27. Fetal hematopoiesis occurs in which structure?
Gut
Spleen
Bone marrow
Thymus
Question 28. Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function?
Iron
Zinc
Iodine
Magnesium
Question 29. Phagocytosis involves neutrophils actively attacking, engulfing, and destroying which microorganisms?
Bacteria
Fungi
Viruses
Yeasts
Question 30. Which hormone is synthesized and secreted by the kidneys?
Antidiuretic hormone
Aldosterone
Erythropoietin
Angiotensinogen
Question 31. Which congenital heart defects occur in trisomy 13, trisomy 18, and Down syndrome?
Coarctation of the aorta (COA) and pulmonary stenosis (PS)
Tetralogy of Fallot and persistent truncus arteriosus
Atrial septal defect (ASD) and dextrocardia
Ventricular septal defect (VSD) and patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
Question 32. Which laboratory test is considered adequate for an accurate and reliable diagnosis of gonococcal urethritis in a symptomatic man?
Ligase chain reaction (LCR)
Gram-stain technique
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
DNA testing
Question 33. During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, which leukocyte is activated?
Neutrophils
Monocytes
Eosinophils
T lymphocytes
Question 34. What is the life span of platelets (in days)?
10
30
90
120
Question 35. What is the role of caretaker genes?
Maintenance of genomic integrity
Proliferation of cancer cells
Secretion of growth factors
Restoration of normal tissue structure
Question 36. Which blood cell type is elevated at birth but decreases to adult levels during the first year of life?
Monocytes
Platelets
Neutrophils
Lymphocytes
Question 37. Which term is used to identify the movement of gas and air into and out of the lungs?
Perfusion
Ventilation
Respiration
Diffusion
Question 38. In which primary immune deficiency is there a partial-to-complete absence of T-cell immunity?
Bruton disease
DiGeorge syndrome
Reticular dysgenesis
Adenosine deaminase deficiency
Question 39. Which substance has been shown to increase the risk of cancer when used in combination with tobacco smoking?
Alcohol
Steroids
Antihistamines
Antidepressants
Question 40. Which statement concerning exotoxins is true?
Exotoxins are contained in cell walls of gram-negative bacteria.
Exotoxins are released during the lysis of bacteria.
Exotoxins are able to initiate the complement and coagulation cascades.
Exotoxins are released during bacterial growth.
Question 41. Which type of immunity is produced by an individual after either natural exposure to the antigen or after immunization against the antigen?
Passive-acquired immunity
Active-acquired immunity
Passive-innate immunity
Active-innate immunity
Question 42. Research supports the premise that exercise has a probable impact on reducing the risk of which cancer?
Liver
Endometrial
Stomach
Colon
Question 43. What part of the kidney controls renal blood flow, glomerular filtration, and renin secretion?
Macula densa
Visceral epithelium
Juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA)
Filtration slits
Question 44. What is the fundamental physiologic manifestation of anemia?
Hypotension
Hyperesthesia
Hypoxia
Ischemia
Question 45. Between which months of age does sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) most often occur?
0 and 1
2 and 4
5 and 6
6 and 7
Question 46. What is the purpose of the spirometry measurement?
To evaluate the cause of hypoxia
To measure the volume and flow rate during forced expiration
To measures the gas diffusion rate at the alveolocapillary membrane
To determine pH and oxygen and carbon dioxide concentrations
Question 47. Carcinoma in situ is characterized by which changes?
Cells have broken through the local basement membrane.
Cells have invaded immediate surrounding tissue.
Cells remain localized in the glandular or squamous cells.
Cellular and tissue alterations indicate dysplasia.
Question 48. The drug heparin acts in hemostasis by which processes?
Inhibiting thrombin and antithrombin III (AT-III)
Preventing the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
Shortening the fibrin strands to retract the blood clot
Degrading the fibrin within blood clots
Question 49. The coronary ostia are located in the:
Left ventricle
Aortic valve
Coronary sinus
Aorta
Question 50. Blood vessels of the kidneys are innervated by the:
Vagus nerve
Sympathetic nervous system
Somatic nervous system
Parasympathetic nervous system
Question 51. Which term is used to describe a muscle cell showing a reduced ability to form new muscle while appearing highly disorganized?
Dysplasia
Hyperplasia
Myoplasia
Anaplasia
Question 52. Which statement best describes a Schilling test?
Administration of radioactive cobalamin and the measurement of its excretion in the urine to test for vitamin B12 deficiency
Measurement of antigen-antibody immune complexes in the blood to test for hemolytic anemia
Measurement of serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity in the blood to test for iron deficiency anemia
Administration of folate and measurement in 2 hours of its level in a blood sample to test for folic acid deficiency anemia.
Question 53. What is the major concern regarding the treatment of gonococci infections?
Development of antibiotic resistance
Changes in virulence
Changes in pathogenicity
Mutations into different strains
Question 54. What is the action of urodilatin?
Urodilatin causes vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles.
It causes vasodilation of the efferent arterioles.
Urodilatin inhibits antidiuretic hormone secretion.
It inhibits salt and water reabsorption.
Question 55. How is most carbon dioxide (CO2) in the blood transported?
Attached to oxygen
In the form of bicarbonate
Combined with albumin
Dissolved in the plasma
Question 56. The most common site of metastasis for a patient diagnosed with prostate cancer is which location?
Bones
Brain
Bladder
Kidney
Question 57. Immunoglobulin E (IgE) is associated with which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
I
II
III
IV
Question 58. Which immunoglobulin (Ig) is present in childhood asthma?
IgM
IgG
IgE
IgA
Question 59. The Papanicolaou (Pap) test is used to screen for which cancer?
Ovarian
Uterine
Cervical
Vaginal
Question 60. The risk for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) decreases for premature infants when they are born between how many weeks of gestation?
16 and 20
20 and 24
24 and 30
30 and 36