If factor-intensity reversals were indeed prevalent in the, Business Economics

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If factor-intensity reversals were indeed prevalent in the

If factor-intensity reversals were indeed prevalent in the real world, how might this fact be used to explain the Leontief paradox? If this explained the paradox, would it suggest that any given U.S. trading partner stood a better chance of conforming to Heckscher-Ohlin than did the United States (i.e., will a factor intensity reversal yield “incorrect” H-O results for both countries)? Why or why not?

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