Problem:
I've read that there are several SNPs associated with increased risk of clinical or morbid obesity. I was wondering if there is any evidence that these are under positive selection.
Question: Would you expect them to be so? Please rationalize your answer.
I guess I'm interested to know if they would previously offered a selective advantage and only recently, say in the post-war period in the
West morbid obesity become a problem due to differences in the diet.