How according to nagel may someone who has no direct
How, according to Nagel, may someone who "has no direct concern for the feelings of others" nevertheless be forced to acknowledge that it is wrong to harm them?
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shakespeares notoriously indecisive hamlet once quips to rosencrantz and guildenstern that although the world is full
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what is tyranny of the majority and why is it a danger in a democracy according to john stuart mill can you please give
what does nagel mean by the objective basis of morality how does he argue for it in your opinion does nagel succeed in
how according to nagel may someone who has no direct concern for the feelings of others nevertheless be forced to
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