fermats theorem if fx has a relative extrema


Fermat's Theorem

 If f(x) has a relative extrema at x = c and f′(c) exists then x = c is a critical point of f(x). Actually, this will be a critical point that f′(c) =0.

 Proof

It is a fairly easy proof.  We will suppose that f(x) has a relative maximum to do the proof.

 The proof for a relative minimum is nearly the same. Therefore, if we suppose that we have a relative maximum at x = c after that we know that f(c) ≥ f(x) for all x which are sufficiently close to x = c.

 Particularly for all h which are sufficiently close to zero may be positive or negative we must contain,

f(c) ≥ f(c + h)

or, with a little rewrite we should have,

f(c + h) - f(c) < 0                                             (1)

Now, here suppose that h > 0 and divide both sides of (1) with h. It provides,

(f(c + h) - f(c))/h < 0

Since we're assuming that h > 0 we can here take the right-hand limit of both sides of such.

= limh0¯  (f(c + h) - f(c))/h < limh0¯ 0 = 0

We are also assume that f′(c) exists and recall this if a general limit exists then this should be equal to both one-sided limits. We can so say that,

f′(c) = limh0¯  (f(c + h) - f(c))/h = limh0¯  (f(c + h) - f(c))/h < 0

If we place this together we have here demonstrated that, f′(c) ≤ 0 .

Fine, now let's turn things around and suppose that h < 0 provides,and divide both sides of (1) with h. It  gives

(f(c + h) - f(c))/h > 0

Keep in mind that as we're assuming h < 0 we will require to switch the inequality while we divide thorugh a negative number. We can here do a same argument as above to find that,

f′(c) = limh0 (f(c + h) - f(c))/h = limh0¯  (f(c + h) - f(c))/h >   limh0¯ 0 = 0

The difference now is that currently we're going to be considering at the left-hand limit as we're assuming that h < 0 . This argument illustrates that f′(c) ≥ 0 .

 We've now shown that

 f′(c) ≤ 0 and f′(c)  ≥ 0. So only way both of such can be true at similar time is to have f′(c) = 0 and it means that x = c must be a critical point.

 As considered above, if we suppose that f(x) has a relative minimum then the proof is nearly  the same and therefore isn't illustraten here. The major differences are simply several inequalities require to be switched.

Request for Solution File

Ask an Expert for Answer!!
Mathematics: fermats theorem if fx has a relative extrema
Reference No:- TGS0414368

Expected delivery within 24 Hours