Does hope obey aristotles doctrine of the mean


Problem:

1. Given the relation McGeer (2004) establishes between hope and care, can hope be the basis for a feminist ethic of care? Explain why or why not. 2. Does hope obey Aristotle's doctrine of the mean? If not, why? If so, what are the excesses and the deficiencies of hope? 3. Is hope utilitarian? If not, why? If so, on what grounds does the utility of hope rest? 4. According to Peters (1993), Kant maintains that one can hope for happiness only if one is virtuous. Briefly explain Kant's reasoning.

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