A financial analyst estimated the CAPM relation for stock i and obtained the following: R, - Rf = -0.03 + 1.05(R", - Rf ) where R, is the rate of return on the stock, Rf is the risk-free rate and R1I1 is the rate of return on the market portfolio. The standard error of the intercept was 0.01 while the standard error of the slope coefficient was 0.05. Does the estimated equation provide evidence in support of the CAPM for stock i? Justify your answer.