Problem
A. Is Kant's notion that for an action to be moral it must be conducted in a "disinterested" fashion actually tenable? Why or why not?
B. Do you think Kant's second formulation of the categorical imperative renders his moral system more tenable? Why or why not?
C. Do you think Bentham's thought on human psychology are tenable? Why or why not?
D. Do you think Mill's distinction between higher-order and lower-order pleasures renders utilitarianism more tenable than Bentham's quantitative view of pleasure? Why or why not?
E. Explain how either Kant or Mill might morally asses Mr. Latimer's actions.