Discuss voluntary pregnancy as an illness presupposes
Question: Why does Mumford think that Thomson's underlying picture of non-threatening/voluntary pregnancy as an illness presupposes a patriarchal notion of human bodies?
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Is the argument deductive or inductive? What type of deductive or inductive argument is this? Is the argument strong, weak, valid, or invalid?
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Why does Mumford think that Thomson's underlying picture of non-threatening/voluntary pregnancy as an illness presupposes
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Please explain how Descartes' proposal is supposed to work. What is the difference between these two things? Why should we think there is a difference?
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