We argued in the text that Rawls's Difference Principle asserts that it is only just to have an unequal distribution of wealth if all persons benefit from that allocation, relative to the situation of an equal distribution. But we also argued that the total level of utility attainable might depend on the distribution of wealth, as utility could be higher in an unequal position if incentive effects enhance productive efficiency. Discuss the implications of these comments for a morally just distribution of resources within and between countries.