Discuss some of the possible reasons why the European women were not automatically given the same rights that European men gained from the Enlightenment in terms of creating more representative political systems. I'm am writing a couple of paragraphs and i need some insight. I am currently without my textbook.
This is my question: Discuss some of the possible reasons why the European women were not automatically given the same rights that European men gained from the Enlightenment in terms of creating more representative political systems. I'm am writing a couple of paragraphs and i need some insight. I am currently without my textbook.