Problem:
Respond to When reading about the DSM's discussion of paraphilias, particularly the section on paraphilia and rapism, I found myself questioning where we draw the line between psychopathology and deviant criminal behaviors. I had to pause for a while to give myself space to consider this question. Coming from a Victim Advocate background and working with women survivors of SA, I have never considered the implications of the aggressor's behaviors as a psychopathological issue and had a very hard time allowing myself to follow that train of thought. As I began to research this issue a bit more, I came across an article, "The DSM-5 Rejects Coercive Paraphilia, Once Again Confirming Rape Is Not a Mental Disorder," which calls attention to the challenges of what IS psychopathological. Such behaviors are 1. Deviant, 2. Dangerous, 3. Distressing and potentially 4. Dysfunctional. However, as the textbook points out, "some persons can engage in deviant, aberrant, and even heinous activities, without being compelled to do so by the presence of psychopathology" (located on page 12 of Chapter 6). That sentence stood out to me. At what point should a behavior become a diagnosable disorder? Are urges like paraphilic rapism driven by impulse control issues, decision-making deficits, or other cognitive impairments, or are they simply conscious choices to violate another's autonomy for personal gratification? Need Assignment Help?