Can an indifference curve be downward sloping in one section


Problem

1. Give as many reasons as you can why we believe that economists assume that the more-is-better property holds and explain.

2. Can an indifference curve be downward sloping in one section, but then bend backward so that it forms a "hook" at the end of the indifference curve?

The response should include a reference list. Double-space, using Times New Roman 12 pnt font, one-inch margins, and APA style of writing and citations.

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Microeconomics: Can an indifference curve be downward sloping in one section
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