in 1995 doctors reported a Chinese family in which retinitis pigmentosa (n progressive degeneration of the retina leading to blindness) affected only males. All six sons of affected males were affected, but all of the five daughters of affected males( and all of the children of these daughters) were unaffected.
a. What is the likelihood that this form of retinitis pigmentosa is due to an autosomal mutation showing complete dominance?
b. What other possibilities could explain the inheritance of retinitis pigmentosa in this family? Which of these possibilities do you think is mot likely?