Case on Town of Midland v. Morris in my business law 2 class.
Need some help understanding some questions:
1. Was Midlands condemnation of property in this case for a public benefit?
2. Is it fair that a city can exercise its eminent domain power to take property even though the property will not be used immediately to benefit the city's residents? Why or why not?
3. The town of Midland and its taxpaying citizens had to pay fair value to 15 property owners for property it acquired through eminent domain. Is it right to make the citizens of one town pay for a pipeline constructed primarily to benefit another town?
4. Suppose that Midland had used it eminent domain authority to acquired for the town to lease to a private resort that would provide a large number of jobs and bring dollars into the community, what are the arguments for and against this use of the power?