According to keynes in market economies depressions are


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According to Keynes, "In market economies depressions are caused by the exhaustion of investment opportunities and the rigidity of saving." Explain. Would it be fair to say that the Say's law is eventually prone to break downs in a market economy? Why so? Why according to Keynes and Kalecki does such a problem not exist under command systems?

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Microeconomics: According to keynes in market economies depressions are
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