1. Which of the following would NOT contribute to organizational effectiveness?
a. excellent quality assurance procedures
b. quality employee retention programs
c. superior customer relations processes
d. high prices for all goods and services
2. Considerable risks are involved when managers make decisions MOST LIKELY because the decisions .
a. are made under uncertain conditions
b. affect many people
c. produce significant revenue
d. are plagued with faulty judgements
3. In the managerial function of , managers encourage and motivate workers to work toward organizational goals.
a. leading
b. organizing
c. planning
d. controlling
4. Which of the following is the BEST description of diversity?
a. different socio-economic backgrounds
b. distinct ethical perspectives shared by many
c. unified business objectives shared across multiple organizations
d. highly skilled workers within a specific discipline
5. David Berry is the manager of a racially diverse department; however, no minorities are in supervisory positions. Therefore, he plans to actively recruit a minority supervisor. Because he is concerned that nonminority employees may oppose his decision, he is MOST LIKELY dealing with a .
a. cultural challenge
b. flexibility challenge
c. fairness and justice challenge
d. decision-making and performance challenge
6. Rick Ward, human resources manager for May and Simmons Company, is developing a new benefits package that can be customized to provide care for unmarried life partners and workers caring for aged parents. Such a program would meet the challenge of managing a diverse workforce.
a. sensitivity
b. flexibility
c. fairness
d. performance
7. A specific component of personality that describes particular tendencies a person has to feel, think, and act in a certain way is .
a. a mood
b. an ability
c. a trait
d. a behavior
8. Which of the following statements about the Big Five model of personality is TRUE?
a. A person will always have one trait in which they rank highest.
b. A person who ranks high on extraversion is likely to have many social interaction with others.
c. A person who ranks high on agreeableness will rank low on conscientiousness.
d. A person who ranks high in extraversion can rank high or low on any other trait.
9. Dana is an attorney. She is a gifted legal thinker and writer. When her partners bring her a legal problem that they will need to address in court she is almost always able to help them. However, she refuses to go into court herself. She explains that she simply does not feel comfortable speaking publicly. In which trait does Dana MOST LIKELY rank low?
a. extraversion
b. agreeableness
c. conscientiousness
d. openness to experience
10. High self-monitors would perform especially well in all of the following jobs EXCEPT .
a. sales
b. consulting
c. spokesperson for a company
d. devil's advocate on a team
11. is the extent to which people have pride in themselves and their capabilities.
a. Self-monitoring
b. Self-esteem
c. Agreeableness
d. Conscientiousness
12. Individuals with Type B personalities are MOST LIKELY to be .
a. impatient
b. driven
c. competitive
d. relaxed
13. pertain to fairness, equity, and impartiality in decision-making.
a. Utilitarian values
b. Moral rights values
c. Justice values
d. Equal rights values
14. Laura is a manager at a retail store. She recently found out that the company is facing budget cuts. She was given the option to give all of her employees a 3% pay cut or lay off one employee. If she were using utilitarian values as her guide, which decision would she MOST LIKELY make?
a. give all her employees a 3% pay-cut
b. organize a protest
c. quit the job so she does not have to make a decision
d. lay off one employee
15. Passage of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act .
a. overrides the need for an organization to have a code of ethics
b. diminishes protections for whistleblowers
c. increases the reporting obligations of public companies
d. instates regular auditing of public companies
16. How a worker feels about his or her job or organization represents the of the worker's attitude.
a. behavioral component
b. affective component
c. cognitive component
d. temperamental component
17. What statement BEST describes how situational factors may affect work mood?
a. Only major events and conditions in one's life affects work mood.
b. Major and minor events and conditions affect one's work mood.
c. Situational factors do not affect work mood.
d. Workplace incivility is the most important factor of work mood.
18. A manager notices a high amount of workplace incivility in the office. What strategy should the manager employ to BEST combat this?
a. push up work deadlines
b. reprimand rude employees
c. encourage face-to-face conversations
d. beautify the office
19. Individuals who are salient are often perceived in inconspicuous members of a group.
a. more neutral terms than
b. more extreme terms than
c. less extreme terms than
d. the same terms as
20. A is a systematic tendency to use, ignore, or interpret information about a target in a particular way that results in inaccurate perceptions.
a. stereotype
b. bias
c. paradigm
d. schema
21. Travis Randall often boasts of his ability to "size up" candidates interviewing for a new job in the first 30 seconds of the interview. He notes that the rest of the interview is spent collecting information to prove to his boss why his initial assessment is correct. This is an example of .
a. stereotype
b. bias
c. primacy effect
d. schema
22. Which of the following is NOT a bias that can have an effect on the attributions people make to their own behaviors or the behaviors of others?
a. fundamental attribution error
b. systematic observational bias
c. actor-observer effect
d. self-serving attributions
23. The occurs when a manager thinks a subordinate's behavior is due to some innate characteristic rather than to the situation.
a. fundamental attribution error
b. attention deficit syndrome
c. actor-observer effect
d. residual attribution error
24. Fundamental attribution errors MOST LIKELY occur when one .
a. takes credit for successes and avoids blame for failures
b. focuses on the actor and ignores the context
c. is unaware of all of the individual factors that influence behavior
d. attributes the behavior of others to external causes
25. When Jennifer Olsen started working at the law firm of Gould, Starnt, and Heffernen, she knew she was one of only a few women at the company who was balancing work and single motherhood. Determined to make her job a success, she worked long hours and sacrificed much time with her child for the good of the firm. Despite her efforts, her productivity, and her high rate of cases won, she knew there were other lawyers at her company who would always see her as a single mother first and a lawyer second. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the perceptions of Jennifer's co-workers?
a. Jennifer's coworkers are basing their perceptions on stereotypes of single mothers.
b. Jennifer's coworkers are calling upon dysfunctional schemas as they perceive her.
c. Jennifer's coworkers' perceptions of her are influenced by their knowledge of the fact that she is a single mother.
d. Jennifer's coworkers are using impression management in order to make themselves look better to the firm owners.
26. Despite the fact that she walked into the interview chewing gum, which Dan found very unprofessional, he hired Margaret, in part, because, like him, she was born and raised in Ohio. On her first two or three job performance evaluations, Dan gave her high ratings, even though she was often late and missed many deadlines, because she made a good overall impression, especially compared to her very inadequate co-workers.
Which of the following biases has Dan NOT allowed to cloud his judgement when it comes to Margaret?
a. primacy effect
b. contrast effect
c. halo effect
d. similar-to-me effect
27. The intended result of is that once an undesired behavior ceases to be reinforced, its frequency will diminish until it no longer occurs.
a. extinction
b. behavior modification
c. operational intervention
d. shaping
28. According to operant conditioning theory, punishment the probability of an undesired behavior.
a. increases
b. reduces
c. negates
d. eliminates
29. Negative reinforcement the probability of a desired behavior.
a. increases
b. decreases
c. eliminates
d. has no effect on
30. Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to contribute to an employee's level of creativity?
a. internal locus of control
b. intelligence
c. self-esteem
d. structure
31. is all of the information, skills, and expertise that an individual or a group has about the kind of work being performed.
a. Autonomy
b. Situational synergy
c. Task-relevant knowledge
d. Operational awareness
32. According to Peter Senge, which of the following is NOT a key activity central to a learning organization?
a. encouraging low self-efficacy
b. encouraging learning in groups and teams
c. developing complex schemas
d. communicating a shared vision for the organization
33. According to expectancy theory, valence, instrumentality, and expectancy must be in order for an employee to be motivated to perform desired behaviors and to perform them at a high level.
a. zero
b. one
c. high
d. low
34. A factory worker really wants to move up in the corporation. He does his work, stays late, and is always looking for extra ways to help. He gets passed up for promotion after promotion. This will MOST LIKELY affect his .
a. instrumentality
b. valence
c. expectancy
d. equity
35. According to Stacy Adams, a is simply another employee or group of employees perceived to be similar to oneself.
a. substitute
b. peer group
c. referent
d. doppelganger
36. Barbara Subaru is a secretary with a prestigious law firm who has observed that other secretaries with the firm receive better pay and have better working conditions than she does, even though she is more productive than they are. Equity theory would label this condition as .
a. overpayment inequity
b. referent inequity
c. underpayment inequity
d. imbalance inequity
37. According to equity theory, which of the following actions would an employee NOT take to restore equity?
a. change the inputs for his own work
b. change the inputs or outcomes of the referent
c. change his perceptions of inputs and outcomes
d. change the outputs of his own work
38. Gerald Simmons, a manager for Computers-R-Us, has been studying the equity theory of motivation. In an effort to be equitable, he plans to give the same percentage pay raise to each of his employees who work 40 hours a week. His plan .
a. will eliminate previous inequities at the store
b. demonstrates an understanding of the unique inputs of each employee
c. considers that effort and behavior are likely to vary across workers
d. may be a problem for those who feel underpaid
39. After employees are allowed to interact with customers or clients, and made responsible for managing these relationships and satisfying customers, which of the following core job dimensions would NOT increase?
a. task identity
b. skill variety
c. autonomy
d. feedback
40. The three individual differences identified by the job characteristics model that affect the relationships between the core dimensions and the psychological states and the relationships between the psychological states and the outcomes include .
a. skill variety, task identify, and task significance
b. growth-need strength, level of knowledge and skills, and satisfaction with the work context
c. core dimensions, critical psychological states, and growth-need strengths
d. experienced meaningfulness of work, experienced responsibility for work outcomes, and knowledge of results
41. According to the social information processing model, the social environment includes all of the following EXCEPT .
a. other work group members
b. supervisors
c. books and documentaries
d. employee's own past behaviors
42. According to the social information processing model, workers' past behaviors will MOST LIKELY affect .
a. how they view their current jobs and work outcomes
b. how they currently view past experiences
c. their extrinsic motivation
d. their future earnings potential
43. Tom Siegmund joined Chrismer and Park Co. as a security guard 30 years ago and after many years of hard work is now the company's security manager. Tom has received several job offers from other companies over the years, but has always chosen to stay with Chrismer and Park. Jesse Black is also a 30-year veteran who works as a clerk at Chrismer and Park. Tom and Jesse see each other only at the annual veteran's awards ceremony. This year, Jesse told Tom how unhappy he was in his work, but that he couldn't do anything about it because he had never received a job offer from another company. According to social information processing theory, if all other things are equal, Tom's job satisfaction is MOST LIKELY .
a. the same as Jesse's, as they both joined the company at the same time
b. higher than Jesse's, as Tom is a manager and Jesse is a clerk
c. higher than Jesse's, based on Tom's past choices and personal sacrifices
d. less than Jesse's, because Tom has more responsibility
44. advocates job simplification and job specialization, and its key goal is maximizing performance.
a. Job enrichment
b. Job enhancement
c. Scientific management
d. The job characteristics model
45. A doctor is asked to improve her relationship with her patients. She usually has little time to spend with them due to other obligations of her job. She is also expected to take on more patients because another doctor is taking an extended leave. She will most MOST LIKELY feel .
a. role conflict
b. underload
c. overload
d. role ambiguity
46. is the uncertainty that occurs when employees are not sure about what is expected of them and how they should perform their jobs.
a. Role ambiguity
b. Role conflict
c. Role distress
d. Role uncertainty
47. Sara Chan is unsure about what is expected of her and how she should perform her job. Therefore, she is experiencing .
a. role ambiguity
b. role conflict
c. work-life balance stress
d. underload
48. relates to the steps people take to deal with and control their stressful feelings.
a. Retroactive coping
b. Problem-focused coping
c. Solution-focused coping
d. Emotion-focused coping
49. When is successful, stressful feelings generated by threats and opportunities do not get out of hand.
a. emotion-focused coping
b. problem-focused coping
c. solution-focused coping
d. psycho-social coping
50. One technique for dealing with stress is to manage time better. This requires .
a. coming in earlier and leaving later
b. making and prioritizing lists of tasks
c. setting time limits for interactions with your boss
d. not attending meetings
51. Members of an organization form when they have a common goal or objective that they are trying to achieve by uniting their efforts.
a. interest groups
b. friendship groups
c. cross-functional teams
d. self-managed work teams
52. The stages of group development include all of the following EXCEPT the stage.
a. norming
b. adjourning
c. forming
d. conforming
53. The stage of group development is characterized by considerable conflict.
a. norming
b. adjourning
c. forming
d. storming
54. Role may be formally specified in a written job description or emerge informally over time as members work out methods for getting the job done.
a. taking
b. norming
c. relationships
d. negotiations
55. The performance of responsibilities that are associated with an assigned role is referred to as role .
a. taking
b. relating
c. norming
d. occupation
56. Which of the following is NOT an advantage that rules can offer for controlling and managing the behavior and performance of group members?
a. They help ensure the performance of behaviors beneficial to organizational effectiveness.
b. They allow comparison of actual behaviors to behaviors specified by the rules.
c. They eliminate the impact of group norms.
d. They help newcomers learn the right way to perform their roles.
57. A research team believed that an organization's members would perform better when in a group. They studied how much effort was exerted in a tug of war contest when individuals were by themselves and when the individuals were on a team with others. They were MOST LIKELY to find that .
a. individuals exerted the same amount of effort regardless of the situation
b. individuals exerted less effort when they knew they were being watched
c. individuals exerted more effort when in a group
d. individual exerted less effort when in a group
58. Every day his group meets, Mike shows up late, texts on his phone, and doesn't exert much effort. Kate is getting angry with Mike's behavior. An example of the sucker effect would be if Kate .
a. works harder to compensate for Mike
b. resigns from the group
c. reports Mike to the supervisor
d. starts showing up late
59. James Thompson's "model of group tasks" suggests that as task interdependence within a group the degree and intensity of the interactions between group members who are required to perform the group's task .
a. increases; decrease
b. increases; increase
c. decreases; increase
d. decreases; remains unchanged
60. groups tend to promote cohesiveness.
a. Large
b. Dysfunctional
c. Small
d. Diverse
61. Groups tend to be MOST cohesive when members are .
a. coherent
b. homogeneous
c. heterogeneous
d. amalgamated
62. Competition between groups is LEAST LIKELY to promote organizational effectiveness when .
a. one group competes against another to see which group can maintain the highest- quality standards
b. one group becomes more concerned with beating another group than with achieving the organization's goals
c. groups that are doing especially well receive public recognition
d. groups are given or adopt their own names
63. Sources of functional or divisional organizational power do NOT include .
a. visibility
b. centrality
c. ability to control contingencies
d. ability to control and generate resources
64. is how vital or crucial the activities of a function or division are to the operation of the entire organization and the degree to which it is positioned to gain access to important information from other functions.
a. Centrality
b. Contingency
c. Relevance
d. Irreplaceability
65. Jim Bosley is a corporate manager for a large corporation. He has the authority to approve projects of the organization's subsidiaries. He knows that his PRIMARY source of power is his .
a. irreplaceability
b. control over contingencies
c. control over resources
d. referent power
66. According to Pondy's model, as the parties in the conflict stage assert their views, the significance of the disputed issue is likely to be blown out of proportion.
a. felt
b. latent
c. manifest
d. perceived
67. According to Pondy's model, during the conflict stage, one party decides how to react to or deal with the party that it sees as the source of the conflict and both parties try to hurt each other and thwart each other's goals.
a. latent
b. felt
c. perceived
d. manifest
68. Every conflict episode leaves a conflict that affects the way both parties perceive and respond to future episodes.
a. outcome
b. residue
c. resolution
d. aftermath
69. Grace is shopping for a computer when a salesman begins telling her why she should choose a certain model. He is using technical terms that Grace doesn't understand, so Grace loses interest and leaves. In the future, the salesman should .
a. change how he encodes the message
b. change how he decodes the message
c. use more jargon
d. use non-verbal communication
70. The provides paths of communication for delicate information, as well as for potential and actual crises.
a. grapevine
b. advice network
c. trust network
d. communication network
71. Encoding is MOST necessary to communication because it .
a. eliminates information distortion
b. entails modifying a message based on who is receiving it
c. provides specialized terminology
d. gives credibility to the message
72. Which of the following is enhanced by nonverbal communication?
a. a text message
b. an in-person meeting
c. a telephone message
d. a company's annual report
73. Personally addressed written communication BEST helps to .
a. provide nonverbal cues
b. promote instantaneous feedback
c. speed up communication
d. encourage the receiver to pay attention to it
74. allows a sender to communicate with the largest number of receivers simultaneously.
a. Voicemail
b. Instant messaging
c. Personally addressed written communication
d. Impersonal written communication
75. Organizational members often engage in ; that is, they search for and choose acceptable responses to opportunities and problems.
a. optimizing
b. rationalizing
c. satisficing
d. Sacrificing
76. The only doctor in a small town had a problem. He wanted to see all of the people who needed his care but he did not have enough time in the day to do so. He was especially worried that if he did not see certain patients, they would not be able to afford the doctor in the next town over. His problem is a(n) one.
a. optimal
b. rational
c. ethical
d. financial
77. Heuristics are best described as .
a. helpful and effective in all situations
b. helpful in some situations and dangerous in others
c. harmful and nonproductive in all situations
d. harmful when used in nonprogrammed decision making
78. The fact that decisions made by groups are more extreme than decisions made by individuals is LEAST LIKELY associated with .
a. the diffusion of responsibility occurs
b. knowing that other group members support the same decision can cause group members to become more confident in their position
c. as a group discusses alternatives, members of the group come up with persuasive arguments to support their favored alternative and the group's confidence in the chosen alternative increases
d. the diversity found in groups that cannot exist within single individuals
79. can become dysfunctional when individual members become more concerned about winning the battle than in making a good decision.
a. Individual decision-making
b. Programmed decision-making
c. Nonprogrammed decision-making
d. Group decision-making
80. is a spontaneous, participative, decision-making technique that groups use to generate a wide range of alternatives from which to make a decision.
a. Producing
b. Brainstorming
c. Nominal group technique
d. Delphi technique
81. A company uses mass production to manufacture toilet paper. The organization MOST LIKELY .
a. has an organic structure
b. has a mechanistic structure
c. uses nonroutine technology
d. carries high task analyzability
82. An example of technology is the services rendered by a small group of auditors hired to evaluate the accuracy of a firm's financial statements.
a. mediated
b. functional
c. small-batch
d. assembly-line
83. technology is based primarily on the use of automated machines that are programmed to perform the same operations time and time again.
a. Process
b. Functional
c. Information
d. Mass-production
84. The principle of the chain of command states that an organization should operate with the fewest levels possible.
a. minimum
b. retractable
c. streamlined
d. hierarchical
85. Top management members do not want a tall organization, so they should .
a. follow the principle of maximum chain of command
b. stress the importance of low risk behaviors to employees
c. hire more managers to supervise lower level managers
d. offer training to employees to enable them to make more decisions
86. is the ongoing communication among different people and functions that is necessary for an organization to achieve its goals.
a. Instant messaging
b. Mutual adjustment
c. Divisional alignment
d. Functional integration
87. A company manufactures parts for military aircrafts. The process requires accuracy and precision, and each job must be done in a certain way to ensure high quality. An instrumental value of this company would MOST LIKELY be .
a. creativity
b. excellence
c. attention to detail
d. risk taking
88. If an organization has a terminal value of , it will MOST LIKELY have an instrumental value of .
a. excellence; profitability
b. responsibility; creativity
c. conservation; innovation
d. morality; being honest
89. Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY a terminal value of innovativeness?
a. maintaining high standards
b. working hard
c. being creative
d. playing it safe
90. An organization develops to encourage members to adopt certain terminal and instrumental values and to behave in certain ways as they pursue their goals.
a. specific norms
b. regulatory frameworks
c. generalized expectations
d. organizational guidelines
91. Henry Ford said, "Learning together is a beginning. Keeping together is progress. Working together is success." Based on this, his organization MOST LIKELY had an instrumental value of .
a. profitability
b. innovation
c. morality
d. cooperation
92. Which of the following would an innovative company be MOST LIKELY to do that an inert company would not do?
a. promote from within the company
b. cut costs as low as possible
c. abide by the most rigid ethical standards
d. experiment with additional product lines
93. All of the following are common instrumental values in a company with an inert culture EXCEPT .
a. laziness
b. noncooperation
c. output restriction
d. entrepreneurship
94. According to Hofstede, is the dimension of culture that focuses on the values that govern the relationship between individuals and groups.
a. national ethos
b. power distance
c. individualism versus collectivism
d. achievement versus nurturing orientation
95. In a country with low power distance, the government would MOST LIKELY view programs to equalize wealth amongst all citizens in a(n) manner.
a. indifferent
b. unethical
c. positive
d. negative
96. An organization decided it wanted its members always to be looking for ways to make the organization better through efficiency or product improvement. Employees attended a meeting where the TQM strategy was explained. When the strategy was evaluated within a month, it was determined to be ineffective. Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY a reason for the poor evaluation?
a. It was too drastic of a change.
b. The managers did not empower the employees.
c. The strategy can take much longer than one month to be effective.
d. The employees were not behind the change.
97. A(n) typically develops as an organization grows and is a principal source of inertia, especially in large organizations.
a. matrix structure
b. organic structure
c. mechanistic structure
d. hyperbolic structure
98. Organizational change is MOST LIKELY to be resisted .
a. if it reinforces group norms
b. by a highly cohesive group
c. if the organizational culture is weak
d. by political coalitions who currently lack power
99. Individuals within an organization are LEAST LIKELY to resist change because of .
a. uncertainty
b. force of habit
c. selective perception
d. profit motive
100. A is any activity that is vital to quickly delivering goods or services to customers or that promotes high quality or low cost.
a. function
b. business process
c. production scheme
d. operational method